Which of the following the the most frequently used method of employee selection in the USA?

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1) Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?
A) telephone reference
B) reference letter
C) interview
D) personality test

C) interview
Explanation: C) Interviews are the most widely used selection procedure. Not all managers use tests, reference checks, or situational tests, but most interview a person before hiring.

2) 4) According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________.
A) administration
B) structure
C) content
D) length

D) length
Explanation: D) Selection interviews are classified according to how structured they are, their "content"—the types of questions they contain, and how the firm administers the interviews. Length is not a category.

3) 5) What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?
A) structured interview
B) unstructured interview
C) situational interview
D) behavioral interview

A) structured interview
Explanation: A) Structured (or directive) interviews list the questions ahead of time and may even list and weight possible answers for appropriateness.

4) 6) Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview?
A) directive
B) nondirective
C) unformatted
D) administrative

B) nondirective
Explanation: B) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format. A few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers.

5) 7) Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates?
A) allows candidates to ask questions
B) uses a manager's time more effectively
C) pursues points of interest as they develop
D) scores and compares candidates with consistency

C) pursues points of interest as they develop
Explanation: C) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. With unstructured interviews, an interviewer can pursue points of interest as they develop and ask follow up questions because of the format's flexibility.

6) 8) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process?
A) higher potential for bias
B) limited validity and reliability
C) inconsistency across candidates
D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions

D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
Explanation: D) Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer's chance to ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.

7) 9) How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?
A) Situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations.
B) Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation.
C) Situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills.
D) Behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations.

B) Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation.
Explanation: B) Situational interviews ask applicants to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation today or tomorrow, and behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past.

8) 10) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview?
A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?"
B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?"
C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?"
D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"

Explanation: A) Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when . . . What did you do?" Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation . . . What would you do?"

9) 11) What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"?
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) stress

B) behavioral
Explanation: B) Behavioral interview questions ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past.

10) 12) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
C) "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that."
D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."

B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
Explanation: B) Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation . . . What would you do?" Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when . . . What did you do?"

11) 13) What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?"
A) behavioral
B) stress
C) puzzle
D) situational

D) situational
Explanation: D) Situational interviews ask questions based on hypothetical events. Behavioral interview questions ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past. Puzzle questions require applicants to solve a problem, and stress questions may be invasive and rude.

12) 14) In a stress interview, the interviewer ________.
A) provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time
B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity
C) gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure
D) describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds

B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity
Explanation: B) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with occasionally rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.

13) 15) Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview?
A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
B) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?"
C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much does Mike have and how much does Todd have?"
E) "Why are you leaving your current position and changing careers?"

A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with occasionally rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.

14) 16) What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"?
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) stress
D) puzzle

C) stress
Explanation: C) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.

15) 17) Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?
A) serial interview
B) board interview
C) sequential interview
D) mass interview

B) board interview
Explanation: B) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted by a team of interviewers, who together interview each candidate and then combine their ratings into a final panel score.

16) 18) Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview.
A) board
B) panel
C) serial
D) mass

C) serial
Explanation: C) In a sequential or serial interview, several persons interview the applicant, in sequence, one-on-one, and then make their hiring decision. Board or panel interviews involve multiple interviewers questioning a candidate at the same time. With a mass interview, a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously.

17) 19) In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
A) formal
B) topical
C) panel
D) mass

D) mass
Explanation: D) With a mass interview, a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously. The panel poses a problem and then watches to see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer.

18) 20) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.
A) serial
B) panel
C) one-on-one
D) mass

B) panel
Explanation: B) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted by a team of interviewers, who together interview each candidate and then combine their ratings into a final panel score. This contrasts with the one-on-one interview (in which one interviewer meets one candidate) and a serial interview (where several interviewers assess a single candidate one-on-one, sequentially). A mass interview involves a panel interviewing several candidates simultaneously.

19) 21) An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________.
A) using an unstructured interview format
B) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously
C) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
D) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques

C) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
Explanation: C) Structured panel interviews are more reliable and valid than unstructured ones. Panel interviews in which members use scoring sheets with descriptive scoring examples for sample answers are more reliable and valid than those that don't.

20) 22) Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview.
A) serial
B) board
C) mass
D) panel

C) mass
Explanation: C) A mass interview involves a panel interviewing several candidates simultaneously. A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted by a team of interviewers, who together interview each candidate and then combine their ratings into a final panel score.

21) 26) Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity?
A) structured, situational
B) unstructured, situational
C) structured, behavioral
D) unstructured, behavioral

A) structured, situational
Explanation: A) Structured interviews (particularly structured interviews using situational questions) are more valid than unstructured interviews for predicting job performance. Situational interviews yield a higher mean validity than do job-related or behavioral interviews, which in turn yield a higher mean validity than do "psychological" interviews, which focus more on motives and interests.

22) 27) The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine ________.
A) why an applicant wants to work for the firm
B) how an applicant solves complex problems
C) why an applicant lied on the resume
D) how an applicant handles criticism

D) how an applicant handles criticism
Explanation: D) Stress interviews may help unearth hypersensitive applicants who might overreact to mild criticism with anger and abuse. Puzzle questions are used to determine how applicants handle pressure.

23) 29) Which of the following is a common characteristic of computerized interviews?
A) multiple-choice questions
B) puzzle questions
C) follow-up questions
D) open-ended questions

A) multiple-choice questions
Explanation: A) Most computerized interviews present a series of multiple-choice questions regarding background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.

24) 30) Which of the following most likely combines aspects of behavioral and situational questioning?
A) computerized interviews
B) panel interviews
C) mass interviews
D) case interviews

D) case interviews
Explanation: D) By having candidates explain how they would address the case "clients'" problems, the case interview combines elements of behavioral and situational questioning to provide a more realistic assessment of the candidate's consulting skills.

25) 33)According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview?
A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer
B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
C) favorable information about the candidate
D) a candidate's extroverted personality

B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
Explanation: B) Perhaps the most consistent research finding is that interviewers tend to jump to conclusions—make snap judgments—about candidates during the first few minutes of the interview or even before the interview starts, based on test scores or résumé data. Being extroverted is not beneficial for all jobs, and unfavorable information is more influential than favorable information about a candidate.

26) 42) Computer-aided interviews are primarily used to administer and score essay questions.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Multiple-choice questions are the typical format for computerized selection interviews.

27) 44) In a brief essay, discuss the effect of modern communications technology on interviews.

Answer: More employers and job interviewees are using iPhone and Web cams to conduct job interviews. Firms have long used the Web to do selection interviews (particularly the initial, prescreening interviews), and with the widespread use of Skype™-type products, their use is growing. Most firms do not eliminate face-to-face interviews, but the video interviews do reduce travel and recruiting expenses, and make things easier for candidates. With employers cutting their recruitment budgets, more are conducting at least the initial screening interviews over the Internet.

28) 52) Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns about interview discrimination?
A) job-related questions
B) multiple interviewers
C) subjective interview questions
D) standardized interview administration

C) subjective interview questions
Explanation: C) With charges of interview discrimination, courts will most likely assess whether the interview process is structured and consistently applied. A structured and fair process involves objective/job-related questions, standardized interview administration, and involves multiple interviewers.

29) 67) What is the best way to avoid most interview errors?
A) conduct panel interviews
B) use a structured interviewing format
C) utilize computerized interviewing technology
D) ask only situational questions during the interview

B) use a structured interviewing format
Explanation: B) The single biggest rule for conducting effective selection interviews is to structure the interview around job-relevant situational and behavioral questions. There is little doubt that the structured situational interview—a series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job—produces superior results.

30) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
A) Great Toys' HR department has developed a job description for the new media planner position.
B) Great Toys' competitors typically face legal issues in the hiring process stemming from the ADA.
C) Great Toys' employees typically remain with the company for many years because they feel comfortable with the organizational culture.
D) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.

D) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.
Explanation: D) Structured situational interviews produce superior results compared to other interviewing methods. Job descriptions are necessary for the process, but they are useful for all types of interviews.

31) 69) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process.

Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
A) The HR department prefers handling job evaluations without the assistance of managers.
B) George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process.
C) George worked as a media planner at another firm and is familiar with the tasks involved in the job.
D) Great Toys has used headhunters in the past to fill executive-level positions at the firm.

B) George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process.
Explanation: B) Structured situational interviews produce superior results compared to other interviewing methods. However, the process is very time consuming and involves many people, so if George lacks the time, another interviewing option should be found.

32) 70) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a ________.
A) nondirective situational interview
B) structured behavioral interview
C) nondirective behavioral interview
D) structured situational interview

D) structured situational interview
Explanation: D) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a structured situational interview. People familiar with the job develop questions based on the job's actual duties.

33) 71) When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is ________.
A) rating the job's main duties
B) creating interview questions
C) analyzing the job
D) creating benchmark answers

C) analyzing the job
Explanation: C) The first step in developing a structured situational interview involves analyzing the job. An individual should write a job description with a list of job duties, required knowledge, skills, abilities, and other worker qualifications.

34) 72) What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview?
A) rate the job's main duties
B) create interview questions
C) create benchmark answers
D) appoint the interview panel

A) rate the job's main duties
Explanation: A) Identifying the job's main duties is the second step of the process. To do so, an interviewer rates each job duty based on its importance to job success and on the time required to perform it compared to other tasks.

35) 73) In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________.
A) essential job duties
B) occupational benefits
C) salary requirements
D) personality issues

A) essential job duties
Explanation: A) Most questions for a structured situational interview should focus on essential job duties. Questions may be situational, behavioral, job knowledge, or willingness questions.

36) 74) After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be developed for scoring purposes.
A) grade definitions
B) alternative rankings
C) benchmark answers
D) human resource metrics

C) benchmark answers
Explanation: C) Each question requires an ideal or benchmark answer for rating purposes. Benchmark answers would likely include examples of a good, marginal, and poor answer.

37) 75) Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews?
A) Answers are compared to industry standards.
B) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided.
C) Job descriptions are written after the interview.
D) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.

D) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
Explanation: D) Employers generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather than one-on-one. Hypothetical questions are included, and job descriptions are written in advance of the interview.

38) 76) Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question?
A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?"
B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much has Mike and how much has Todd?"
D) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?"

A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?"
Explanation: A) Job knowledge questions assess knowledge essential to job performance. Behavioral questions ask candidates how they've handled similar situations.

39) 77) How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3-6
D) 8-10

C) 3-6
Explanation: C) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is conducted by a team of three to six members during the interview.

40) 78) What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?
A) knowing the job
B) developing relevant questions
C) establishing rapport with candidates
D) asking technical questions

A) knowing the job
Explanation: A) The first step in conducting an effective interview is knowing the job, which can be done by studying the job description. Developing and asking questions and establishing rapport are steps that occur later in the process.

41) 79) In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________.
A) knowledge
B) lifelong goals
C) willingness
D) motivation

B) lifelong goals
Explanation: B) Use job knowledge, situational, or behavioral questions, and know enough about the job to be able to evaluate the interviewee's answers. Questions that simply ask for opinions and attitudes, goals and aspirations, and self-descriptions and self-evaluations allow candidates to present themselves in an overly favorable manner.

42) 80) Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed?
A) responses improved
B) weaknesses revealed
C) reliability limited
D) bias reduced

D) bias reduced
Explanation: D) Using the same questions with all candidates reduces bias because of the obvious fairness of giving all the candidates the exact same opportunity. Using the same questions with all candidates improves reliability.

43) 82) Which question below is an example of a behavioral question?
A) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?"
B) "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?"
C) "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?"
D) "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"

A) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?"
Explanation: A) Behavioral questions address the candidate's actual actions in the past, such as how he or she handled a problem.

44) 83) All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT ________.
A) using the same questions for all candidates
B) rating candidate answers against a scale
C) asking candidates to describe themselves
D) using a standardized interview form

C) asking candidates to describe themselves
Explanation: C) Asking all candidates the same job-related questions and rating them against a scale improves the interview's structure. A standardized interview form also improves structure. Questions asking candidates to describe themselves will not likely reveal weaknesses, and they fail to improve the structure of the interview.

45) 84) Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?
A) background question
B) behavioral question
C) situational question
D) job knowledge question

B) behavioral question
Explanation: B) Behavioral questions ask about a candidate's past behavior.

46) 86) All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________.
A) taking brief notes during the interview
B) scheduling a private room for the interview
C) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate
D) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers

D) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
Explanation: D) Scheduling a private room, reviewing a candidate's qualifications, showing courtesy, and taking notes are ways to conduct an effective interview. Candidates should be asked open-ended rather than yes or no questions.

47) Which of the following best supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews?
A) Marion likes applicants to evaluate themselves and to describe their goals.
B) Marion is viewed as a fair employer by most of her subordinates.
C) Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills.
D) Marion's best agent has recently retired.

C) Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills.
Explanation: C) In structured interviews, all interviewers generally ask all applicants the same questions, which helps less talented interviewers conduct better interviews. The opinion of Marion's employees and recent retirements are less relevant.

48) Which of the following would most likely improve the reliability and validity of Marion's selection process?
A) asking all applicants the same questions
B) holding Web-assisted interviews with candidates
C) conducting stress interviews by a group of interviewers
D) using the speed dating approach to interviewing applicants

A) asking all applicants the same questions
Explanation: A) In structured interviews, all interviewers generally ask all applicants the same questions. Partly because of this, these interviews tend to be more reliable and valid.

1) Which of the following is most likely NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program?
a) making new employees feel like part of a team
b) helping new employees become socialized into the firm
c) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union
d) teaching new employees about the firm's history and strategies

c) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union
Explanation: C) During employee orientation, firms try to make the new employee feel welcome and at home and part of the team, make sure the new employee has the basic information to function effectively, help the new employee understand the organization in a broad sense, and start the person on the process of becoming socialized into the firm's culture, values, and ways of doing things. It is less likely that the firm would help employees join a labor union.

2) 9) MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result, the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for ________.
a) discrimination
b) negligent training
c) occupational fraud
d) hazardous training

b) negligent training
Explanation: B) Inadequate training can expose employers to negligent training liability. If an employer fails to train adequately and an employee harms a third party, it is likely that the court will find the employer liable.

3) 12) What is the first step in the ADDIE training process?
a) assessing the program's successes
b) appraising the program's budget
c) analyzing the training need
d) acquiring training materials

c) analyzing the training need
Explanation: C) The gold standard of training programs is the basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model that training experts have used for years. The first step is to analyze the training need.

4) 13) What is the second step in the ADDIE training process?
a) developing training aids
b) defining the training objectives
c) designing the overall training program
d) designating employees who need training

c) designing the overall training program
Explanation: C) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The second step of the process is designing the overall training program.

5) 14) Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process?
a) training a targeted group
b) creating training materials
c) evaluating the success of the program
d) estimating a budget for the training program

b) creating training materials
Explanation: B) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The third step, developing the course, involves assembling and creating the training materials.

6) 15) Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process?
a) holding on-the-job training sessions
b) selecting employees for training
c) preparing online training materials
d) asking participants for feedback

a) holding on-the-job training sessions
Explanation: A) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The fourth step involves providing the training to a targeted employee group. Training methods vary but may include on-the-job training or online training.

7) 16) What is the final step in the ADDIE training process?
a) evaluating the program's successes or failures
b) rewarding employees for program participation
c) conducting a budget and needs analysis
d) training the targeted group of employees

a) evaluating the program's successes or failures
Explanation: A) Evaluating the program is the final step in the training process. After training is complete, employees are often rewarded for using new skills, but not during the training process.

8) 22) Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________.
a) analyzing job descriptions
b) reviewing performance standards
c) questioning current job holders
d) conducting a work sampling

d) conducting a work sampling
Explanation: D) Work sampling is a method used for screening job applicants and will not likely be used to identify training needs. Managers can uncover training needs by reviewing performance standards, assessing job descriptions, performing the job, and questioning current job holders and their supervisors.

9) 24) The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________.
a) needs analysis
b) training assessment
c) performance analysis
d) performance appraisal

c) performance analysis
Explanation: C) Performance analysis is the process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining whether the employer should correct such deficiencies through training or some other means (like transferring the employee).

10) 27) Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales.

All of the following questions are relevant to Mark's decision to implement a training program for his sales team EXCEPT:
a) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions?
b) Does every salesperson understand what his or her performance standards are?
c) What tools are available to sales team members to help them work efficiently?
d) What were the results of attitude surveys distributed to the sales team?

a) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions?
Explanation: A) Although recruiting and interviewing affect the quality of employees on a sales team, once the workers are hired the focus should be on training. The other questions relate to the decision of implementing a training program.

11) 36) Tyler, a new accounts representative at Martin Marketing, is learning the job by actually doing job-related tasks such as contacting customers. Tyler is most likely participating in ________.
a) on-the-job training
b) socialization
c) social learning
d) modeling

a) on-the-job training
Explanation: A) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm.

12) 37) Which of the following training methods is most frequently used by employers?
a) job instruction training
b) apprenticeship training
c) on-the-job training
d) classroom training

c) on-the-job training
Explanation: C) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm, which is why it is the most popular method. In many firms, OJT is the only training available.

13) 38) All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________.
a) programmed learning
b) understudy method
c) special assignments
d) job rotation

a) programmed learning
Explanation: A) Programmed learning is not a type of OJT but is a step-by-step, self-learning method.

14) 40) Mario hopes to be promoted to the head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as an assistant to the current department head. Which type of training is most likely being used in this example?
a) job rotation
b) job instruction
c) coaching method
d) informal learning

c) coaching method
Explanation: C) The most familiar on-the-job training is the coaching or understudy method. Here, an experienced worker or the trainee's supervisor trains the employee. This may involve simply acquiring skills by observing the supervisor, or (preferably) having the supervisor or job expert show the new employee the ropes, step-by-step.

15) 41) The on-the-job method of ________ involves give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems.
a) coaching
b) informal learning
c) special assignments
d) programmed learning

c) special assignments
Explanation: C) Special assignments similarly give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems.

16) 44) A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________.
a) job instruction training
b) programmed learning
c) apprenticeship training
d) coaching technique

c) apprenticeship training
Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training is a process by which people become skilled workers, usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training. It traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson.

17) 45) Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson?
a) programmed learning
b) mentoring
c) apprenticeship training
d) coaching

c) apprenticeship training
Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson. It is a process by which people become skilled workers, usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training.

18) 47) When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most appropriate training method to use is ________.
a) job instruction training
b) apprenticeship training
c) programmed learning
d) job rotation

a) job instruction training
Explanation: A) Many jobs (or parts of jobs) consist of a logical sequence of steps that one best learns step-by-step. This step-by-step training is called job instruction training (JIT).

19) 50) Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training lecture?
a) opening with a familiar joke
b) talking from a prepared script
c) watching the audience's body language
d) using exaggerated hand gestures to emphasize points

c) watching the audience's body language
Explanation: C) Watching for negative signals in the audience's body language can help a speaker realize that he or she needs to make modifications to the lecture. Irrelevant or old jokes are not effective openers. Speakers should use notes rather than a script and control their hands. Speeches are more effective when broken into short talks.

20) 53) Which of the following terms refers to computer-based training systems that adjust to meet each trainee's specific learning needs?
a) virtual learning systems
b) video-based simulations
c) multi-media training plans
d) intelligent tutoring systems

d) intelligent tutoring systems
Explanation: D) Intelligent tutoring systems are computerized, supercharged, programmed instruction programs. In addition to the usual programmed learning, intelligent tutoring systems learn what questions and approaches worked and did not work for the learner, and therefore adjust the suggested instructional sequence to the trainee's unique needs.

21) 55) ________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job.
a) Vestibule
b) Virtual-reality
c) Programmed
d) Job instruction

a) Vestibule
Explanation: A) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job (perhaps in a separate room or vestibule). Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job.

22) 56) American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about airplane equipment and safety measures. This is an example of ________.
a) on-the-job training
b) vestibule training
c) virtual reality training
d) programmed learning

b) vestibule training
Explanation: B) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job. Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job, such as with pilots.

23) 67) What is the primary purpose of implementing a cross training program at a firm?
a) compiling skills records
b) creating a diverse environment
c) facilitating flexible job assignments
d) assessing employee technical skills

c) facilitating flexible job assignments
Explanation: C) Cross training means training employees to do different tasks or jobs than their own; doing so facilitates flexibility and job rotation, as when you expect team members to occasionally share jobs.

24) 80) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________.
a) human resource management
b) performance enhancement
c) management development
d) talent management

c) management development
Explanation: C) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills.

25) 81) Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current performance of managers, and building skills of managers?
a) management development
b) performance management
c) strategic management
d) management by objectives

a) management development
Explanation: A) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills. The management development process consists of assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising managers' current performance, and then developing the managers.

26) 82) All of the following are on-the-job training methods used for managerial positions EXCEPT ________.
a) job rotation
b) action learning
c) case study method
d) understudy approach

c) case study method
Explanation: C) Job rotation, action learning, and the coaching/understudy approach are managerial on-the-job training methods. The case study method is considered an off-the-job management training technique.

1) Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards?
a) employee selection
b) performance appraisal
c) employee orientation
d) organizational development

b) performance appraisal
Explanation: B) Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards. Performance appraisal always involves setting work standards, assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards, and providing feedback to the employee.

2) The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________.
a) apply for managerial positions
b) remove any performance deficiencies
c) revise their performance standards
d) enroll in work-related training programs

b) remove any performance deficiencies
Explanation: B) The purpose of providing feedback to the employee is to motivate him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.

3) Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals?
a) creating specific goals
b) assigning measurable goals
c) administering consequences for failure to meet goals
d) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals

c) administering consequences for failure to meet goals
Explanation: C) Effective goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely. Goals should be challenging but doable, and employee participation should be encouraged. Giving consequences for failing to meet goals is not recommended and unlikely to motivate employees.

4) All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________.
a) correcting any work-related deficiencies
b) creating an organizational strategy map
c) determining appropriate salary and bonuses
d) making decisions about promotions

b) creating an organizational strategy map
Explanation: B) Most employers still base pay and promotional decisions on the employee's appraisal. Appraisals also let the boss and subordinate develop a plan for correcting any deficiencies, and serve a useful career planning purpose. Creating a strategy map is not a likely purpose for conducting a performance appraisal.

5) In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance?
a) employee's direct supervisor
b) company appraiser
c) human resources manager
d) employee's subordinates

a) employee's direct supervisor
Explanation: A) The supervisor—not HR—usually does the actual appraising, and a supervisor who rates his or her employees too high or too low (or all average) is doing a disservice to them and to the company. Subordinates rate supervisors in some organizations, but the upward feedback is not the primary appraisal of the supervisor.

6) Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process?
a) conducting appraisals of employees
b) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness
c) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors
d) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws

a) conducting appraisals of employees
Explanation: A) Supervisors, rather than HR managers, conduct the actual appraisals. However, the HR department monitors the system's effectiveness and compliance with EEO laws. HR managers also provide supervisors with tools, advice, and training in regards to performance appraisals.

7) ________ means making sure that the manager and the subordinate agree on the subordinate's job standards and the appraisal method to be used.
A) SMART goals
B) Organizational development
C) Defining the job
D) Forced distribution

C) Defining the job
Explanation: C) Defining the job means making sure that you and your subordinate agree on his or her duties and job standards and on the appraisal method you will use.

8) What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?
A) Ratings are reliable but invalid.
B) Ratings are subject to halo effects.
C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
Explanation: C) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers. Self-ratings are neither reliable nor valid in most cases.

9) Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument to replace Oshman's traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach?
A) Oshman's competitors in the small appliance industry monitor the performance of their employees through electronic performance monitoring systems.
B) Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs.
C) Oshman has experienced problems associated with central tendency and bias, and the firm wants to ensure that appraisals are legally sound.
D) Oshman uses management by objectives as a primary appraisal method and requires supervisors to develop SMART goals.

B) Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs.
Explanation: B) Performance management refers to the continuous process of aligning the performance of individuals and teams with an organization's goals. Performance management does not necessarily eliminate problems like central tendency and bias. Instead, the approach focuses on monitoring an employee's performance and making sure it matches the needs of the firm.

10) Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?
A) alternation ranking
B) graphic rating scale
C) forced distribution
D) constant sum rating scale

B) graphic rating scale
Explanation: B) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. A graphic rating scale lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait.

11) Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait?
A) behaviorally anchored rating scale
B) graphic rating scale
C) forced distribution
D) critical incident

B) graphic rating scale
Explanation: B) A graphic rating scale lists traits (such as "quality and reliability" or "teamwork") and a range of performance values (from "unsatisfactory" to "outstanding," or "below expectations" to "role model") for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait. The assigned values for the traits are then totaled.

12) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate the performance of her subordinates.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
A) The firm wants Suzanne to evaluate her subordinates on an ongoing basis and to keep a log of critical incidents.
B) Suzanne wants to ensure that the firm is protected from employee discrimination lawsuits, so she has conducted a job analysis of each position.
C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills.
D) Employees in Suzanne's department participated in developing their own performance standards when they were first hired by the firm.

C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills.
Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales with competency-based appraisal forms enable an employer to focus on the extent to which an employee exhibits the competencies essential for the job. Graphic rating scales do not track critical incidents, and they are not the best tool for protecting a firm from legal charges because of problems with bias, central tendency, and halo effect.

13) All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________.
A) generic dimensions of performance
B) performance of co-workers
C) achievement of objectives
D) job-related competencies

B) performance of co-workers
Explanation: B) A paired comparison method involves making comparisons of employees with their co-workers. The graphic rating scale measures four job-relevant job dimensions including generic job dimensions, a job's actual duties, competencies, and objectives.

14) Which performance appraisal tools require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior?
A) alternation ranking
B) paired comparison
C) critical incident
D) graphic rating

C) critical incident
Explanation: C) With the critical incident method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples (critical incidents) of a subordinate's work-related behavior. Every six months or so, supervisor and subordinate meet to discuss the latter's performance, using the incidents as examples.

15) Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
A) behaviorally anchored rating scale
B) constant sums rating scale
C) alternation ranking
D) forced distribution

A) behaviorally anchored rating scale
Explanation: A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

16) Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made?
a) behaviorally anchored rating scale
b) management by objective
c) mixed standard scales
d) forced distribution

b) management by objective
Explanation: B) MBO requires the manager to set specific measurable, organizationally relevant goals with each employee, and then periodically discuss the latter's progress toward these goals.

17) Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data?
a) digital dashboard device
b) electronic performance monitoring system
c) Web-based management oversight device
d) electronic performance support system

b) electronic performance monitoring system
Explanation: B) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online.

18) Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT ________.
a) unclear standards
b) halo effects
c) complexity
d) leniency

c) complexity
Explanation: C) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. However, graphic-type rating scales in particular are susceptible to several problems including unclear standards, halo effect, central tendency, leniency or strictness, and bias.

19) 76) A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________.
a) halo effect
b) stereotyping
c) central tendency
d) leniency

c) central tendency
Explanation: C) Central tendency refers to the tendency of supervisors to rate all employees the same way, such as rating them all average.

20) 77) The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________.
a) rank employees
b) use graphic rating scales
c) limit the number of appraisals
d) appraise personal characteristics

a) rank employees
Explanation: A) Ranking employees instead of using graphic rating scales can reduce the problem of central tendency. Ranking means you can't rate all employees as average.

21) 78) Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings?
a) central tendency
b) leniency
c) strictness
d) halo effect

b) leniency
Explanation: B) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low. Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings.

22) 83) All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________.
a) maintaining a diary of employees' performance during the year
b) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings
c) knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools
d) developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement

b) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings
Explanation: B) Graphic rating scales do not necessarily lead to effective performance appraisals, and they are susceptible to problems like bias and central tendency. Keeping a diary, knowing which tool to use and forming a performance improvement plan are all methods for improving the effectiveness of a performance appraisal.

23) 85) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools?
a) eliminates central tendency errors
b) offers extremely high rate of accuracy
c) provides quantitative rating for each employee
d) links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives

c) provides quantitative rating for each employee
Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales are simple to use and provide quantitative ratings for each employee. However the tool has problems with central tendency and unclear standards.

24) 93) Which of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview?
a) training supervisors in the rating process
b) identifying potential interpersonal problems
c) making plans to correct employee weaknesses
d) discussing and scheduling training programs

c) making plans to correct employee weaknesses
Explanation: C) The appraisal typically culminates in an appraisal interview. Here, the supervisor and the subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to remedy deficiencies and reinforce strengths.

25) 106) Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven.
All of the following questions are relevant to Oshman's decision to replace its traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach EXCEPT:
a) What technology is available to help managers gain immediate access to employee performance data?
b) How would work procedures need to be modified to provide more frequent feedback to employees?
c) How would the firm's mission and vision translate into departmental, team, and individual goals?
d) What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?

d) What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?
Explanation: D) Issues related to performance management include the technology used to monitor employee performance, methods for providing feedback, development of goals, and incentives. Identifying critical incidents is an issue related to traditional appraisal methods rather than performance management.

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Which one of the following is the most commonly used selection tool quizlet?

1) Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? Explanation: C) Interviews are the most widely used selection procedure. Not all managers use tests, reference checks, or situational tests, but most interview a person before hiring.