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How much rest should be given between each repetition of an saq exercise for young athletes?

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(section4)Waist to hip ratio when waist circumference is 28 inches and hip circumference is 33 inches 28/33=.85
(section4)What pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated to when measuring resting blood pressure 20 to 30 mm
(section4)What muscle would be underactive leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment middle and lower trapezius
(section4)What population is the VT2 talk test for individuals with performance goals
(section4)Which muscle would be considered underactive leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment lower trapezius
(section4)The PAR-Q and preparation process reflects what three health indicators an individuals current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
(section4)What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
(section4)Which muscles would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment latissimus dorsi
(section4)What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body peripheral vasodilation
(section4)Which muscles are underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat gluteus maximus and medius
(section4)What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
(section4)Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility performance assessment
(section4)What muscle would be overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment upper trapezius
(section4)Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single leg squat adductor complex
(section4)What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness VO2max
(section4)Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location a vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus(belly button)
(section4)When is a muscle considered overactive when it is in a state of elevated neural activity(compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
(section4)Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still static posture assessment
(section4)Which of the following waist to hip ratios places Amy in the high risk category for cardiovascular disease whr of .88
(section4)Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients overhead squat
(section4)Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program health risk assessment
(section4)Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each side
(section4)What muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment upper trapezius and levator scapula
(section4)What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow performance assessments
(section4)Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities squat
(section4)From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity body composition
(section4)For which population is the 1.5 mile run test considered most valid college aged athletes
(section4)What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3 minute step test 96 steps per minute
(section4)Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out gastrocnemius and soleus
(section4)Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement at the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones(while standing)
(section4)Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat middle and lower trapezius
(section4)How many skinfold are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol four
(section4)Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion any indication of chest pain or angina like symptoms
(ch 1)Which statement is true about lowering blood pressure planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension
(ch 1)Which common cause of death is most preventable obesity
(ch 1)What percentage of adults experience low back pain at least once in their life 80%
(ch 1)What is true about cholesterol exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol
(ch 1)BMI classifications 18.5 underweight /18.5-25 healthy/25-30 overweight/30 or higher obese
(ch 1)In type 1 diabetes what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making insulin
(ch 1)ACL tear is a common injury to what part of the body knee
(ch 1)deconditioned state of lost physical fitness, muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, lack of core and joint stability
(ch 1)Hypertension 120/80
(ch 1)Blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or in between beats diastolic blood pressure, bottom number
(ch 1)What is true about cancer cells in the body grow abnormally
(ch 1)Two basic types of diseases chronic and acute
(ch 1)Which statement about COPD is true it is not a curable disease
(ch 1)OPT model 5 phases-stabilization endurance, strength endurance, muscular development, maximal strength, power 3 levels- stabilization, strength, power
(ch 1)Which condition is an example of a chronic disease type 2 diabetes
(ch 1)Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes insulin resistance
(ch 1)The dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder shoulder impingement
(ch 1)Type of cholesterol that tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease LDL- low density lipoproteins
(ch 1)What best demonstrates evidence based practice referencing peer review research
(ch 1)What does OPT stand form optimal performance training
(ch 1)What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries ischemic heart disease
(ch 1)Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry
(ch 1)What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body it can reduce LDL and increase HDL
(ch 1)Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified preventative care
(ch 1)What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex sprains and plantar fasciittis
(ch 2)Stages of the sales process step 1- identifying a customers needs/ step 2- communicating solutions for the customers needs/ step 3-making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customers needs
(ch 2)What is the most important step to take before starting the job purchasing liability insurance to protect personal assets
(ch 2)What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
(ch 2)What statement best describes a nonprofit health club heath club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs
(ch 2)Low cost health club low price membership including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
(ch 2)Mid market club low cost clubs with additional amenities
(ch 2)Premium health club multiple group fitness studios, high end amenities
(ch 2)How often does a NASM CPT have to renew every two years
(ch 2)What is the difference between an independent contractor and employee ic is responsible for
(ch 2)Forecasting business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
(ch 2)What is the number of continuing education units needed to complete a 2 year cycle 2
(ch 2)What is the main benefit for establishing a brand identity it establishes a top of mind presence
(ch 2)Why can personal trainers be considered one of the most important employees personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on results
(ch 2)What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service creating a brand identity
(ch 2)Beth's primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option working for a premium health club company
(ch 2)How many pages are most appropriate for a resume one to two pages
(ch 2)How long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records 4 years
(ch 2)Which statement about a CPT scope of practice is accurate cpt's do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease
(ch 3)Having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like is consistency
(ch 3)Source of social support that's been shown to be particularly important for older adults Family
(ch 3)Which of the following is true about body image body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately
(ch 3)Which statement best demonstrates empathy i know that finding time to exercise is hard. i struggle to get it done sometimes as well
(ch 3)Social physique anxiety when someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
(ch 3)In a group exercise setting, which person should greet all members and make them feel welcome exercise leader
(ch 3)Client wants to find more ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need informational support
(ch 3)When some has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both pros and cons ambivalence
(ch 3)What is the top barrier amongst individuals lack of time
(ch 3)Number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of what built environment
(ch 3)Client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own. What kind of support does she need companionship support
(ch 3)Client has been training for 6 months has moved farther away from the gym. What barrier would she overcome convenience
(ch 3)Changing leadership style based on the size of a group, what component of leadership is that situational factors
(ch 3)Intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior social support
(ch 3)Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior sports and exercise psychology
(ch 3)Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when goals are not adjusted
(ch 3)Intensity and direction of someone's effort motivation
(ch 3)Long term exercise adherence is associated with what type of motivation intrinsic motivation
(ch 3)Client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors. What type of social construct is this social influence
(ch 3)Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which barrier lack of time
(ch 3)When family members are not supportive of exercise related behavior, it can be viewed as what barrier to exercise
(ch 3)Community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
(ch 3)Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which barrier lack of social support
(ch 3)Having poor body image is associated with what low self esteem
(ch 3)Comradery is about what forming connections with people
(ch 3)What is an example of companionship support coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
(ch 3)Research has demonstrated that moderate intensity exercise is best for what providing psychological benefits
(ch 3)Example of an informal role within an exercise group planning social gathering for the group
(ch 3)The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms group influence
(ch 3)Self esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship reciprocal
(ch 3)A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting inquire further about what their motives are for participating
(ch 4)Which of the following is an outcome goal I want to dead lift 300 lbs
(ch 4)What is a client centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalnece motivational interviewing
(ch 4) example of a SMART goal I want to lose 20 lbs over the next 8 months
(ch 4)Which of the following is a question that may promote change what might you want to change
(ch 4) question that may provoke resistance what makes you think you are not at risk
(ch 4) Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency preparation
(ch 4) Identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements reverse listing
(ch 4)"Why do you want to lose weight" is an example of open ended question
(ch 4) A CPT wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique providing info on health benefits
(ch 4) Communication that includes posture, hand gesture, and facial expressions nonverbal communication
(ch 4)"When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes" implementation intention
(ch 4)Attitude the degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
(ch 4)What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health related outcomes appearance imagery
(ch 4)What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress measurable
(ch 4)What type of imagery involves exercise form technique imagery
(ch 4)What stage is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months action
(ch 4) What stage of are self efficacy levels generally the highest maintenance
(ch 4) what term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior determinants
(ch 4) correct order of stages of change precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
(ch 4)What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker reflective listening
(ch 4) Which behavior change technique allow individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways self monitoring
(ch 5)purpose of inter vertebral discs they act as shock resorbers
(ch 5)Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury golgi tendon organs
(ch 5)When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, what system is this being causes by sympathetic nervous system
(ch 5)What is explained by the sliding filament theory the shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
(ch 5) When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is clue to which key sensory function proprioception
(ch 5) Chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission neurotransmitters
(ch 5) What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna long
(ch 5)surrounds the skeletal muscle and connects them to other surrounding muscles fascia
(ch 5) type of muscle that requires high levels of force type 2
(ch 5)What are the two divisions of the skeletal system axial and appendicular
(ch 5)What are the 3 types of muscles in the body skeletal, cardiac, smooth
(ch 5)Which joint is the most mobile able to move in all 3 directions ball and socket
(ch 5) Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull nonsynovial
(ch 5)Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries type 1
(ch 5)Correct order of fascia starting with the most superficial epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
(ch 5) What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendon and ligaments attach processes
(ch 5) What is a characteristic of type 2 muscle fiber short term contractions
(ch 5)Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle appendicular
(ch 5)What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system to connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
(ch 5)characteristic of type 1 muscle fiber slow to fatigue
(ch 5)which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell mitochondria
(ch 5)Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension osteokinematics
(ch 5)one of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division peripheral
(ch 5)Which joints are most associated with human movement synovial
(ch 5)Which is a functional unit of a muscle cell sarcomere
(ch 5) What are the two components of the central nervous system brain and spinal cord
(ch 5)What age is the brain considered to be developed 25
(ch 5) One of the major curvatures of the spine from a posterior view concave lumbar curve
(ch 5) Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body autonomic nervous system
(ch 5)This causes the brain to reform neural pathways neuroplasticity
(ch 5) Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site troponin
(ch 5)Correct order of segments of the spine cervical, thoracic, lumbar
(ch 5)Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest parasympathetic
(ch 5)Name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the neurons system neuron
(ch 5) Two components of a sarcomere actin and myosin
(ch 5)What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone ligament
(ch 5)A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by which function motor function
(ch 5)Process by which bone is constantly renewed remodeling
(ch 6)Catecholamines are responsible for what increase lipolysis
(ch 6)What area of the chest contains the heart mediastinum
(ch 6)Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms platelets
(ch 6)Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs right ventricle
(ch 6)Which may be experienced with overtraining high levels of cortisol which leads to a catabolic environment
(ch 6)What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels decrease growth hormone levels and increase cortisol levels
(ch 6)Normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest 15 breaths per minute
(ch 6)Two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation ensure adequate water intake and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
(ch 6)Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs respiratory
(ch 6)the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processes for energy, nutrients, and tissue building absorption
(ch 6)What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction activation of the sympathetic nervous system
(ch 6)Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity central to the left and anterior to the spine
(ch 6)Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin like growth factors, and growth hormone overload training that is of high intensity with limited rest periods
(ch 6)term that is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers frank starling law of the heart
(ch 6)the cardiovascular and respiratory system work together to provide the body with what gas oxygen
(ch 6)Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body red blood cells
(ch 6)Basal metabolic rate(BMR) amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
(ch 6)What exercise would most likely contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels back squat
(ch 6)Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise increased ventricular filling
(ch 6)What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise increased heart rate
(ch 6) The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones insulin
(ch 6)Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
(ch 6)What advice would enable a client to breathe properly sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand
(ch 6)What is end diastolic volume amount of blood in ventricle before contraction
(ch 6)What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart veins
(ch 6)Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland hypothalamus
(ch 6)Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure duodenum of the small intestine
(ch 6)Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body left ventricle
(ch 6)What is the primary muscle type of the heart cardiac
(ch 6)Normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person 80 beats per minute
(ch 6)The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gasses in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures alveolar sacs
(ch 6)What is the end systolic volume amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
(ch 6)What is stroke volume amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
(ch 6)What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart increase with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
(ch 6)Difference between end diastolic and end systolic stroke volume
(ch 6)The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product carbon dioxide
(ch 6)What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial(SA) node to the atriventricular(AV) node internodal pathway
(ch 6)Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs left atrium
(ch 6)What hormone may be indicative of overtraining cortisol
(ch 7)Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following rapid amortization phase
(ch 7)Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements multifidus
(ch 7)Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscles actions that appropriately loaded increased anabolic hormone situation
(ch 7)Concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement feed-forward
(ch 7)Anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point superior
(ch 7)Type of exercise that accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel despite the movement speed remaining constant isokinetic
(ch 7)During a squat the lowering phase would be what type of muscle action eccentric
(ch 7)What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body regional interdependence
(ch 7)Scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract relax relationship between agonists and antagonists reciprocal inhibition
(ch 7)Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch shortening cycle is released during which muscle action concentric
(ch 7)Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phases of plyometric exercise is prolonged stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful
(ch 7)The anterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups adductor(inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
(ch 7)The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula serratus anterior
(ch 7)What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force applications of the lever arm torque
(ch 7)What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw first class
(ch 7)Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into the right and left sides sagittal plane
(ch 7)The posterior oblique system includes what muscle groups thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
(ch 7)During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase transverse
(ch 7)What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury proprioception
(ch 7)In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend what lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
(ch 7)What would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction as the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases
(ch 7)Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle fitness is the cause place a small board under the heels
(ch 7)What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback proprioception
(ch 7)movements that take place within a joint and are not visible anthrokinematics
(ch 7)During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unneccessary thigh movement in the frontal plane hip abductors
(ch 7)Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility of the lumbo pelvic hip complex lateral subsystem
(ch 7)Anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body contralateral
(ch 7)Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior at it assists anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion synergist
(ch 7)Overactive hip flexors may lead to what postural compensation anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low back arch
(ch 7)Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotatiton
(ch 7)What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration concentric
(ch 7)Performing a bicep curl with a dumbbell in the hand is what type of lever 3rd class
(ch 7)Deep longitudinal subsystem includes what muscle groups hamstrings and erctor spinae
(ch 7)How should an eccentric muscle action be described the development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
(ch 7)What is accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during eccentric muscle action an velocity increases, ability to develop force also increases
(ch 7)What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together scapular retraction
(ch 7)How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described a contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
(ch 7)What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body medial
(ch 7)Movement represents the integrated functioning of which 3 main systems muscular, nervous, skeletal
(ch 7)What is the most accurate description of motor control the ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
(ch 7)Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system erector spinae
(ch 7)How should the amortization phase of the stretch shortening cycle can be described the transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
(ch 7)What term is described muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint isometric
(ch 7)Pronation of the food describes what multiplanar movements eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
(ch 7)Scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentrically contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction stretch shortening cycle
(ch 8)Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure resting metabolism
(ch 8)Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect protein
(ch 8)What are triglycerides the stored form of fat
(ch 8)If someone went out for a 5 mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity oxidative phosphorylation
(ch 8)What are essential amino acids amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
(ch 8)If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production the ATP-PC system
(ch 8)Which of the following is a component pf total daily energy expenditure(TDEE) components are RMR, TEF, NEAT, EAT
(ch 8)Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body a very low carbohydrate diet
(ch 8)Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2 glucose
(ch 8)If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat(not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do low to moderate intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
(ch 8)A client plans to go for a 10 mile run but they become fatigued after 7 miles so they stop. What is the most likely cause of the fatigue glycogen stores were exhausted
(ch 8)Why is non exercise activity thermogenesis(NEAT) important it can be protective against obesity
(ch 8)What is excess post-exercise oxygen consumption(EPOC) increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise
(ch 8)Food is composed of which 3 compounds carbohydrates, fats, proteins
(ch 8)What two factors define any form or type of exercise intensity and duration
(ch 8)What is the high energy compound used by the body to do work ATP
(ch 8)What are non-essential amino acids can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
(ch 8)Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through gluconeogenesis
(ch 8)What is bioenergetics the study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
(ch 8)What are the building blocks of protein amino acids
(ch 8)What does the first law of thermodynamics state energy can neither be created or destroyed
(ch 8)What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2) the point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
(ch 8)What is the definition of energy balance when daily food intake is matched to energy needs
(ch 8)Which of the following is a ketone body acetoacetic acid
(ch 8)What is the term for the higher than normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise excess post-exercise oxygen consumption
(ch 8)What is defined as a steady state exercise aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity
(ch 8)What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR) number of calories that the body uses at rest to function
(ch 8)What are the 3 pathways through which the body can produce ATP the ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
(ch 8)What breathing change occurs at the VT2 expiration becomes more forceful
(ch 8)Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule acetyl COA
(ch 8)What is acidosis in muscle a decrease in pH which can lead to feelings of fatigue
(ch 8)How many calories are in 1 lb of fat 3500
(ch 8)What is a kilocalorie(kcal) the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree celcius. it is also the same thing as 1 food calorie
(ch 8)What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do the ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP
(ch 8)When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called phosphorylation
(ch 8)Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise all 3 energy systems would be used at some point during the activity
(ch 8)What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle beta oxidation
(ch 8)When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost as exhaled carbon dioxide
(ch 8)What are components of ATP adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
(ch 8)If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate will be converted to lactate
(ch 8)When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions pyruvate
(ch 8)What is the high energy compound used by the body to do work ATP
(ch 8)Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed free hydrogen gas
(ch 8)Low intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective 20 min of moderate intensity activity
(ch 8)What are the end products of the electron transport chain ATP and water
(ch 8)What is the name of the stored form of glucose glycogen
(ch 9) Which food would be classified as high biological value protein source whole eggs
(ch 9)What hydration option would be best for exercise lasting over 90 minutes or shorter duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy precipitation sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
(ch 9)Client has high blood pressure and he needs to reduce it by diet changes before meds. What should you do for him explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling
(ch 9)What is RDA for protein .8 g/kg of body weight
(ch 9)Macronutrients (three of them) food substances required in large amounts to supply energy: includes protein, carbohydrate, and fat
(ch 9)Micronutrients they regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metaboism. vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients. these are non energy yielding nutrients that have important regulatory functions in metabolic pathways
(ch 9)What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet 45 to 60% of total calories
(ch 9)What nutrition topic is within the scope of practice for a CPT general guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance
(ch 9)Current sports nutrition guidelines from the international society of sports nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
(ch 9)Approximately what percentage of the human body(in male and female adults) is comprised of water 0.6 60%
(ch 9)What would be a helpful strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss replacing high calorie foods with leaner substitutes
(ch 9)What is a recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration water
(ch 9)During short, high intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body carbohydrates
(ch 9)Which part of a food label would help review the ingredients in a food product the ingredients list
(ch 9)3 categories within the lipid family triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
(ch 9)What best describes simple sugars single or double molecular sugars that are easily absorbed by the body
(ch 9)Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food(TEF) protein
(ch 9)Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source dairy food
(ch 9)Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long duration exercise serves what function it replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance
(ch 9)What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range(AMDR) for fat in the diet 20 to 35%
(ch 9)Complex carbohyrdrates comprised of polysaccharides and contain both fiber and starch
(ch 9)Adaptive thermogenesis metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
(ch 9)What is an important function of protein synthesis of hormones and muscle protein
(ch 9)What vitamin plays a key role in energy metabolism B vitamins
(ch 9)Which type of lipids are considered to be heart healthy with reduced inflammation omega 3 fatty acids
(ch 9)Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, include which of the following decreased blood flow
(ch 9)Who is recognized by big wigs to provide clinical, community, service, and nutrition education registered dietitian nutritionist
(ch 9)How many calories are in 1 gram of protein 4 calories
(ch 9)Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management hormones and medications
(ch 9)How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
(ch 9)According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
(ch 9)Which types of food provide all the essential amino acids animal proteins
(ch 10)Which of the following is magnesium classified as macromineral
(ch 10)How many B vitamins are there 8
(ch 10)Calcium is of principle importance for what maintaining strong bones
(ch 10)What percentage of alpha linolenic acid(ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid(EPA) about 5 to 15%
(ch 10)Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose to improve athletic performance and/or body composition
(ch 10)Vitamin and mineral supplements are what kind of supplements health supplements
(ch 10)Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication anticoagulants(warfarin)
(ch 10)Compared to water soluble vitamins, what is true about fat soluble vitamins fat soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body
(ch 10)Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega 3 fatty acids anti inflammatory properties
(ch 10)What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label a supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts
(ch 10)What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL) the greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
(ch 10)Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the U.S food and drug administration (FDA)
(ch 10)Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat sodium and potassium
(ch 10)The B vitamins have a primary role in what macronutrient metabolism
(ch 10)Which vitamin is the most transient vitamin c
(ch 10)Can supplements contain food allergens yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be listed on the label
(ch 10)The water soluble vitamins are vitamin c and b complex vitamins
(ch 10)Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin folate
(ch 10)What is true about proprietary blends proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed
(ch 10)How are dietary supplements defined regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
(ch 10)Creatine is most effective for what purpose improve strength and muscle size
(ch 10)Which of the following is true of protein shakes they are convenient options for increasing protein intake
(ch 10)What is iron considered to be trace mineral
(ch 10)Why is third party verification important it provided unbiased testing for a product
(ch 10)Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels
(ch 10)Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold supplements do not require approval prior to the sale
(ch 10)How does taking "high" doses of vitamin c impact health more is not always better. in some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. an increased dose of vitamin c over 1 gram reduces absorption
(ch 10)Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity vitamin a
(ch 10)What is vitamin D most important for bone health
(ch 10)What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAA's) valine, leucine, isoleucine
(ch 10)What is the purpose of the current good manufacturing practices to provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of projects
(ch 10)Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the united kingdom european food safety authority (EFSA)
(ch 10)Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how more efficiently
(ch 10)Omega 3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids palmitic acid
(ch 10)Vitamin C has role in what function collagen synthesis and immunity
(ch 10)The most well known and well researched effect of omega 3 fats relates to what heart health
(ch 10)Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about dietary supplements PubMed
(ch 11)What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness V02 max
(ch 11)From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity body compositions
(ch 11)What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate radial pulse
(ch 11)What best defines a physical activity readiness questionnaire(PAR Q+) a detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
(ch 11)Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the durnin womersley protocol biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
(ch 11)What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body thermoregulation
(ch 11)Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure validity
(ch 11) What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
(ch 11)Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol when the individual responds with no when asked can you speak competently
(ch 11)What pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure the cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist
(ch 11)In which BMI category would you classify vincent if he has a BMI of 27 overweight
(ch 11)When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise flexibility
(ch 11)What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise trainer the individual is tired from the test
(ch 11)Where is it common to take an individual's circumference to assess health risk waist
(ch 11)Which is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test environmental temperature
(ch 11)What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon archimedes principle
(ch 11)Which of the following test uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels YMCA 3 minute step
(ch 11)The standard Jackson and Polluck 3 site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
(ch 12)Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessments gluteus maximus
(ch 12)Which test is used to measure lower extremity power vertical jump
(ch 12)Which assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow static posture
(ch 12)Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders upper crossed syndrome
(ch 12)What muscle would be underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment lower trapezius
(ch 12)What muscle would be considered underactive, leading to excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat gluteus maximus
(ch 12)How is upper crossed syndrome characterized forward head and protracted shoulders
(ch 12)What muscles are underactive with knee valgus during the single leg squat gluteus maximus and medius
(ch 12)Which muscles are overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome upper trapezius
(ch 12) What test is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control pro shuttle
(ch 12)Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion dynamic posture assessment
(ch 12)Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment hip flexor complex
(ch 12)Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome abdominals
(ch 12)Which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears shoulder elevation
(ch 12)Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pulleys to assess a pushing movement standing push assessment
(ch 12)What test is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed 40 yd dash
(ch 12)Which exercise is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement bench press strength
(ch 12)What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus the knee collapsing inward
(ch 12)Which muscle would be considered overactive leading to the excess forward trunk lean during the overhead squat hip flexors
(ch 12)Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
(ch 12)Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips pes planus distortion syndrome
(ch 12)What is used to measure lateral speed and agility lower extremity functional test(LEFT)
(ch 12)Which muscles are underactive when the feet turn out anterior and posterior tibialis
(ch 12)Which muscles are underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
(ch 12)What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment femur parallel to ground
(ch 12)What exercise is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement push up test
(ch 12)How is lower crossed syndrome characterized anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
(ch 12)How often is it recommended to reassess clientele every month
(ch 12)What are 3 postural distortion patters to look for in static postural assessments pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
(ch 12)What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head, and neck
(ch 12)What muscles are overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome hip flexors and lumbar extensors
(ch 12)What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation the shoulders moving upward toward the ears
(ch 13)The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach progressive overload
(ch 13)Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of what muscle hypertrophy
(ch 13)Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming decreased agility based outcome in athletes
(ch 13)What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted baseline value
(ch 13)What is not skill related concept that would enhance core training quickness
(ch 13)What is not present when a client is making a transition to the power phase of the OPT model deconditioning
(ch 13)What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion stretch shortening cycle
(ch 13)Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions posterior
(ch 13)Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions squatting
(ch 13)Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training improved sleep
(ch 13)What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads maximal strength training
(ch 13)What is a training exercise that is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness resistance training
(ch 13)For someone training in the muscular development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal body fat loss
(ch 13)Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations self efficacy
(ch 13)Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of phase 5(power training) superset front medicine ball and oblique throw
(ch 13)Which order of phases is correct stabilization endurance, strength endurance, muscular development, maximal strength, power
(ch 13)What would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis pectoral group
(ch 13)Besides power training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their olympic weightlifting maximal strength training
(ch 13)Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has levels of upper body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling handstand push up
(ch 13)Which phrase of training would a person be in if they wanted to spend more time becoming better at volleyball and already has adequate leg strength power training
(ch 13)Which benefit is not correct regarding resistance training a decrease in metabolic rate
(ch 13)In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component resistance training
(ch 13)What can be used in place of repetition tempo speed
(ch 13)Why might ROM(range of motion)be limited for a client previous energy
(ch 13)Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in phase 4(maximal strength training shoulder/military press
(ch 13)What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production power training
(ch 13)What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement erector spinae
(ch 13)Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture muscle imbalances
(ch 13)Which synergist would assist the upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, power triceps brachii
(ch 13)Which individual would be unlikely to use high levels of maximal strength training of the OPT model cross country runner
(ch 13)What parameter of muscular development training would be most associated with this style of training growth and volume
(ch 13)Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body spine
(ch 13)What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime mover strength strength endurance
(ch 13)What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system stabilization endurance training
(ch 13)According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training rehabilitation
(ch 13)Which ADL is most likely to involve the hip hinge cleaning
(ch 13)What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve ROM self myofascial techniques
(ch 14)Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling the direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors
(ch 14)What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ sense change in muscle tendon tension and speed
(ch 14)What are common tools used for self myofascial techniques foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
(ch 14)Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility altered movement patterns
(ch 14)Your client ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this called altered reciprocal inhibition
(ch 14)Which term best describes motion at the joint surface arthrokinematics
(ch 14)If your client is working in phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize SMR/static stretching
(ch 14)What are two medical precautions for self myofascial techniques joint hyper mobility and scoliosis
(ch 14)What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles autogenic inhibition
(ch 14)The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce for effectively, is an example of what key term synergistic dominance
(ch 14)What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise contraindication
(ch 14)The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique static stretching
(ch 14)What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
(ch 14)What are the recommended training variables for active stretching 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
(ch 14)Which answer best represents the time frame when delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
(ch 14)What are the recommended training variables for self myofascial rolling 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
(ch 14)What are the recommended training variables for static stretching 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
(ch 14)What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement neuromuscular efficiency
(ch 14)Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise delayed onset muscle soreness
(ch 14)Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
(ch 14)What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
(ch 14)When performing a dumbbell bicep curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist(prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this called reciprocal inhibition
(ch 14)Which upper body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury plow pose
(ch 14)Which lower body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
(ch 14)What type of exercise would be suggested to address, shortened hamstrings flexibility exercises
(ch 14)Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action reciprocal inhibition
(ch 14)If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch.What is this called stretch reflex
(ch 14)Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components flexibility and joint ROM
(ch 14)What is a neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak inhibited muscle synergistic dominance
(ch 14)What are two contraindications for self myofasical techniques cancer and bleeding disorders
(ch 14)Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower body stretch provided excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee
(ch 14)What are the training variables for dynamic stretching 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
(ch 14)Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs osteokinematics
(ch 14)What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction patterns overload
(ch 14)Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system the muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
(ch 14)What are the recommended variables for static stretching 1 to 3 sets hold each stretch for 30 seconds
(ch 14)What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises any medical precautions or contraindications
(ch 15)What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
(ch 15)What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate intensity exercise like brisk walking 5 times a week
(ch 15)Which of the following is most likely a predictive factor for developing a knee injury knee valgus
(ch 15)How is steady state aerobic exercise best defined aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
(ch 15)Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold 1(VT1) an intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
(ch 15)What ideally should follow a day of high intensity interval training in stage 3 a stage 1 day(recovery day)should follow a hard stage 3 training day
(ch 15)What is one advantage of using the karvonen method(heart rate reserve or HRR)to calculate training heart rates, versus % of maximal heart rate(HRmax) it accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate
(ch 15)What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if particpating in vigorous intensity exercise(ex jogging or running) 3 times
(ch 15)From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
(ch 15)Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic the exercise is intense
(ch 15)What do the V and P within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training volume and progression
(ch 15)Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness power
(ch 15)What is incorrect about HIIT measuring intensity by one's effort is an accurate measure of intensity
(ch 15)In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging too hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging zone 2
(ch 15)Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm up prior to cardiorespiratory training increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
(ch 15)What phases do not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training interval phase
(ch 15)Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate intensity exercise ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
(ch 15)What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1 fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
(ch 15)When designing a 4 zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2 from VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
(ch 15)What duration does NASM typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm up 5 to 10 minutes
(ch 15)How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout continuous talking becomes challenging
(ch 15)How is Fartlek training best described fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout
(ch 15)What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utlized at true rest 3.5 mL/kg/min
(ch 15)What statement is most accurate an individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor or morbidity and mortality
(ch 16)Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training instability training using a stability ball
(ch 16)What is the primary action of the multifidus stabilize and extend the spine
(ch 16)The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term core stability
(ch 16)Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves cervical and lumbar
(ch 16)When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor it may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension
(ch 16)Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion frontal plane
(ch 16)Which muscle acts to increase intra abdominal pressure transverse abdominis
(ch 16)Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine increased lordosis
(ch 16)What is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise wobble board
(ch 16)What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core force production during dynamic whole body movements
(ch 16)What is considered a superficial muscle of the core erector spinae
(ch 16)What is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core side plank
(ch 16)Proper extensibility of what global muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw latissimus dorsi
(ch 16)What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core stabilize vertebral segments
(ch 16)Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core rotators
(ch 16)Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis drawing in maneuver
(ch 16)Individuals with low back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core multifidus
(ch 16)Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening eccentric action
(ch 16)How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise in a neutral position
(ch 16)Which of the following describes structural scoliosis altered bone shape through the spine
(ch 16)What is the definition of kinesiophobia fear of movement
(ch 16)Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves thoracic and sacral
(ch 16)Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine multifidus
(ch 16)Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production(power)of the core medicine ball woodchop throw
(ch 16)Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance functional(non structural)scoliosis
(ch 16)For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises,what is the appropriate position of the shoulders depressed and slightly retracted
(ch 16)What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core bracing
(ch 16)The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body lumbo pelvic hip complex region
(ch 16)Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
(ch 16)Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening concentric action
(ch 16)Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries injury resistance
(ch 17)What is the proper lower body progression for balance training when starting with a new client two leg stable, single leg stable, two leg unstable, single leg unstable
(ch 17)Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance biomechanical ankle platform system
(ch 17)Which term describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity neuromuscular function
(ch 17)What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment correct technique
(ch 17)Stage 3 balance exercises should include what type of motion hopping motions with a single leg stance building
(ch 17)Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance semi dynamic balance
(ch 17)The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally inferiorly
(ch 17)Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury injury resistance
(ch 17)What is the example of the role of the CPT in working on balance training with a client prescribing progressive, appropriate balance exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
(ch 17)During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable isometrically contracted
(ch 17)When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure the toes on the leg on which the participant is balancing
(ch 17)What type of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with moving base of support semi dynamic balance
(ch 17)Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46% ankle sprains
(ch 17)Describes an unstable but controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi dynamic, and dynamic balance proprioceptively enriched
(ch 17)What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult perturbation
(ch 17)Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance static balance
(ch 17)Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles somatosensory system
(ch 17)What variation of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint multiplanar single leg box hop down with stabilization
(ch 17)What best defines the base of support of the body the area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
(ch 17)The risk of which lower extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5 week balance training program that improved landing landing movement techniques anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
(ch 17)Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system visual system
(ch 17)Which three senses are involved in the balance system visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
(ch 17)What type of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position static balance
(ch 17)What defines the limits of stability of the body the area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
(ch 17)Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program firm surface
(ch 17)It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fears of falling older individuals
(ch 17)What is the shortest time period per day for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children 10 minutes
(ch 17)Which balance test would require significant use of the vestibular system squatting on one limb with eyes closed
(ch 17)Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable force somatosensation
(ch 17)Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion hopping motions with a single leg stance landing
(ch 17)How could the personal trainer make the single leg throw and catch balance exercise more difficult for the client increasing the velocity of each throw
(ch 17)Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge what system vestibular system
(ch 17)Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program BOSU ball
(ch 17)Which sense provides info about movement of the head in space vestibular system
(ch 17)Performing a hop training program on a firm surface would be an example of what type of balance semi dynamic balance
(ch 18)What are ground reaction forces forces on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
(ch 18)What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish deceleration
(ch 18)What is plyometric training also known as reactive training
(ch 18)What type of movements should be used before progressing to single foot plyometric exercises dual foot drills
(ch 18)What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch shortening cycle stretching of the agonist muscle
(ch 18)According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics neuromuscular stabilization
(ch 18)What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training proper technique
(ch 18)What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training isometric
(ch 18)What is a regression for the box jump up with stabilization squat jump with stabilization
(ch 18)In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur eccentric
(ch 18)What should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training injury history
(ch 18)What does plyometric training help increase motor unit recruitment
(ch 18)What is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise depth jumps
(ch 18)What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals training frequency
(ch 18)Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve what landing mechanics
(ch 18)Repeat squat jumps are a progression of what exercise multiplanar jump with stabilization
(ch 18)What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise a faster tempo, similar to daily life
(ch 18)What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen recovery
(ch 18)What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise it causes stress to the connective tissue
(ch 18)Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training movement assessments
(ch 18)Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric exercise it causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently
(ch 18)During what phase of the stretch shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production amortization
(ch 18)What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible rate of force production
(ch 18)Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks the surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk
(ch 18)What is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise transverse plane box jump down
(ch 18)What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high impact nature supportive shoes
(ch 18)What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercises eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
(ch 18)Why is a jump down exercise considered more advanced than a jump up exercise it challenges landing mechanics
(ch 18)What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization keeping the knees in line with the toes
(ch 18)What plyometric exercise varaible is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles intensity
(ch 18)What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise jump
(ch 19)You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. What would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout 6 to 10 drills
(ch 19)Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control agility
(ch 19)What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is healthy 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability
(ch 19)Improving front side running mechanics is associated with what less braking force
(ch 19)How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes 15 to 60 seconds
(ch 19)Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults 1 or 2 sets
(ch 19)What would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients 4 to 6 drills
(ch 19)What is a component of quickness training assessment of visual stimuli
(ch 19)Why are proper front side mechanics in sprinting important front side mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward
(ch 19)What describes the physical benefits of SAQ training SAQ decreases the risk of osteopenia
(ch 19)What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight loss clients 1 or 2 sessions per week
(ch 19)What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps 0 to 90 seconds
(ch 19)To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight loss clients, what adjustment to a workout session could be implemented decreased rest periods
(ch 19)With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes 1 to 4 sets
(ch 19)What three joint actions compromise triple extensions plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
(ch 19)When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used ankle plantar flexion
(ch 19)What differentiates change of direction from agility reaction to a signal
(ch 19)What is osteoporosis a disease in which the density and the quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
(ch 19)You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills 3 or 4 sets
(ch 19)What describes triple flexion when referring to front side mechanics ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
(ch 19)Which of the following is a component of agility training deceleration
(ch 19)Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times 10 percent
(ch 19)Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position quickness training
(ch 19)What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible speed
(ch 19)How is osteopenia best described the loss of bone density related to the aging process
(ch 19)What is sarcopenia age related loss of muscle tissue
(ch 19)Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (ex: reaction time) and approximately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus(such as hitting a baseball) quickness
(ch 19)You are training a youth client. What is the best chance for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete 4 to 8 drills per workout
(ch 20)Which is a power focuses back exercise for the back musculature medicine ball pullover throw
(ch 20)What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly step ups
(ch 20)What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettle bottoms up movement stabilization focused exercise
(ch 20)What is the valsalva maneuver a process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra abdominal pressure and spinal stability
(ch 20)What is the peripheral heart action system a variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
(ch 20)What option is a common power focused resistance training exercise medicine ball soccer throw
(ch 20)A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps what type of resistance training system is being used complex training
(ch 20)What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements stabilization
(ch 20)What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise thumbs pointing up
(ch 20)A client is performing a push up exercise with a 4,3,2,1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed 4 seconds
(ch 20)What is the principle of specificity a principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
(ch 20)What area of the body is most targeted during the single leg squat to row exercise posterior chain
(ch 20)Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations 5 sets, 5 reps, 85% IRM
(ch 20)What is a drop set an approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
(ch 20)What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target middle deltoid
(ch 20)A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client the fitness professional should spot underneath
(ch 20)What are the 3 movements performed during the ball combo 1 exercise scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
(ch 20)What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl palms facing inward toward each other
(ch 20)Which exercise is a total body power focused movement two arm push press
(ch 20)A client is performing the multiplanar step up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low back arches.Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive overactive lattisimus dorsi underactive abdominals
(ch 20)What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increases levels of tension, as seen in resistance training muscular hypertrophy
(ch 20)What muscles does the tubing(shoulder)external rotation exercise primarily target infraspinatus and teres minor
(ch 20)Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature close grip bench press
(ch 20)What equation represents power force times velocity
(ch 20)What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set pyramid system
(ch 20)The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high reps when performing leg related exercises. What is this an example of mechanical specificity
(ch 20)Which exercise is categorized as total body movement ball squat curl to press
(ch 20)What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome the person has suffered an ACL sprain
(ch 20)What is an inaccurate description of the valsalva maneuver it is a recommended technique for those with hypertension
(ch 20)During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the before the upper body squat, curl to two arm press
(ch 20)Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastronemius and soleus calf raise
(ch 20)What are the 3 stages of the general adaptation syndrome alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
(ch 20)What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time muscular endurance
(ch 20)What is the general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress
(ch 20)A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client at the wrists
(ch 21)If a client performs a stabilization workout on monday, a power workout on wednesday, and an SAQ workout on saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle undulating
(ch 21)What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool down restore optimal length tensions relationship
(ch 21)Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization linear periodization
(ch 21)If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into phase 5
(ch 21)Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation per the "iceberg effect" stability
(ch 21)Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout activation
(ch 21)Which of the following best describes the term power rate of force production
(ch 21)Which component of an OTP workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy client's choice
(ch 21)Which essential component of an OTP workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism resistance training
(ch 21 )What is a characteristic of linear periodization increases intensity while decreasing volume
(ch 21)Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. What muscles are involved latissimus dorsi
(ch 21)Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement pushing
(ch 21)What are the 3 levels of the OPT model stabilization, strength, power
(ch 21)When developing a safe and effective warm up for phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility self myofascial techniques
(ch 21)What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under phase 3
(ch 21)What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis undulating
(ch 21)What core exercise best suit stabilization training floor bridge
(ch 21)What is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan cardio training
(ch 21) Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization undulating periodization
(ch 21)What can phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as mastering basic movement patterns
(ch 21)What is not a compound exercise seated leg extension
(ch 21)What is not a goal of phase 1 of the OPT model increasing strength
(ch 21)What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into muscular development
(ch 21)What phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity phase 4
(ch 21)What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior plan or action adherence
(ch 21)What is not a purpose of an effective cool down increasing breathing rate
(ch 21)What is the primary adaptation for the muscular development phase of the OPT model hypertrophy
(ch 21)What is an example of linear periodization 4 weeks in phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in phase 2
(ch 21)Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movements are all known as what movement patters
(ch 21)Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to next month's mesocycle reassessment
(ch 21)What is a primary adaptation of the strength endurance training phase muscular endurance
(ch 21)What is a primary adaptation of the power training phase rate of force production
(ch 21)According to the "iceberg" effect, which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level" endurance
(ch 22)When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, what exercise is least likely to be beneficial BOSU squat
(ch 22)What phase of the OPT model would suspend body weight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes phase 2
(ch 22)Kettlebells were first used in what setting as a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
(ch 22)What two modalities are the most alike ViPR and sandbag
(ch 22)What are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
(ch 22)What exercise may increase inaccurate readings while using a wrist-worn heart rate monitor medicine ball catch and pass
(ch 22)What modalities are most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane medicine balls
(ch 22)Core stability is the ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
(ch 22)Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one provide an increased range of motion
(ch 22)What modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power medicine ball chest pass
(ch 22)When discussing suspended body weight training, what is the most accurate statement increases flexibility and joint mobility
(ch 22)When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, what is the most accurate statement fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as recorded history of exercise time and effort
(ch 22)What modality has the potential to be used in every phase of the OPT model cable machines
(ch 22)What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell with a kettlebell the center of mass is farther from the handle
(ch 22)What would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet 45 cm
(ch 22)What exercise and modality would require the spot of spotter barbell chest press
(ch 22)During the cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what resist shoulder horizontal adduction
(ch 22)A CPT may seek further proprioceptive development in which phase phase 1
(ch 22)Regarding free weight training, what is the most accurate statement free weights may improve dynamic joint stability and proprioception
(ch 22)How often should elastic resistance bands be checked prior to every use
(ch 22)Proprioception is best described as what statement the body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
(ch 22)Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality ViPR
(ch 22)What is considered one of the four horsemen of fitness medicine balls
(ch 22)Circuit training is best described as what a full body program that incorporates high intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
(ch 22)The goal of the CPT in utilizing machines in phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
(ch 22)Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
(ch 22)Balance is best described as what the ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
(ch 22)What movement trains a client in all 3 planes of motion multiplanar
(ch 22)What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin 50%
(ch 22)What modality is the least likely to increase joint stability strength machines
(ch 22)When performing high velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more that percentage of the user's body weight 20%
(ch 22)When compared to machines, free weights provides what benefit to users increased multiplanar movement
(ch 23)What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response rheumatoid arthritis
(ch 23)What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program neural adaptations
(ch 23)What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension standing cable hip extension
(ch 23)What disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation type 2(secondary) osteoporosis
(ch 23)What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell type 2
(ch 23)For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session 200 to 300
(ch 23)What is a normal physiological process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable arteriosclerosis
(ch 23)In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent postmenopausal women
(ch 23)What is the state of elevated glucose in your bloodstream hyperglycemia
(ch 23)What is a common cause of chronic hypertension excess weight
(ch 23)For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicted clients who are in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy
(ch 23)What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs restrictive lung disease
(ch 23)Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly effect neck of the femur and the lumbar(lower back)vertebrae
(ch 23)What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with the PAD leg pain
(ch 23)According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than age 20 are either overweight or obese 72%
(ch 23)A hypertensive client is taking a beta blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity the talk test
(ch 23)What causes coronary heart disease atherosclerosis
(ch 23)What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure hypertension
(ch 23)What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women coronary heart disease
(ch 23)What disease is a condition of altered airflow through lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production chronic obstructive lung disease
(ch 23)What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream hypoglocemia
(ch 23)Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short duration (10 to 90 seconds) high intensity anaerobic activities children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power
(ch 23)What blood pressure is stage 1 hypertension 130 to 139 systolic or 80 to 89 diastolic
(ch 23)Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax)
(ch 23)A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density walking
(ch 23)What is a shortness of breath or labored breathing dyspnea
(ch 23)A client is taking beta blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is safest for him to perform standing cobra
(ch 23)Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both mother and fetus
(ch 23)What is known as sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by a blockage in an artery or ruptured blood vessel stroke
(ch 23)What blood pressure is reflective of hypertensive crisis 180 systolic and greater than 120 diastolic
(ch 23 How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot and humid environments should children be restricted to 30 minutes

Between each rep, make sure you're taking time to rest and recover for at least fifty seconds. As you progress, you can increase your sprint time or the number of sets you do in one workout session.

How often should Saq be completed?

Level 4 merchants must complete the PCI DSS Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) annually, but only Discover Merchants must submit an Attestation of Compliance every year.

What is SAQ training method?

Speed, Agility and Quickness training also known as SAQ. training is a system of dynamic movement and guidelines when create the important of motor abilities to enhance the ability of the individual to be more skillful in faster movement.
For a beginner SAQ program design for an apparently healthy adult, it would be suggested to complete 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability.

rest repetition saq exercise young athletes

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