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Terms in this set (153)
Which of the following root words means "bone"?
A. Verte
B. Kypho
C. Oste
D. Orth
C. Oste
When a bone is splintered or crushed into many pieces it is what type of fracture?
A. Compound
B. Comminuted
C. Blow out
D. Impacted
B. Comminuted
Which of the following is describes as a shrinkage or wasting of bone due to inactivity?
A. Callus
B. Sprain
C. Atrophy
D. Bursa
C. Atrophy
How many phalanges are there in each foot?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 14
D. 24
C. 14
Which of the following is a branch of science that deals with the aged?
A. Pediatrics
B. Geriatrics
C. Senility
D. Alzheimers
B. Geriatrics
Which of the following would NOT be demonstrated on a medial oblique projection of the foot?
A. Intertarsal joints
B. Intermetatarsal spaces
C. Tarsal bones
D. Ankle joint
D. Ankle joint
Which of the following is a common name for the position that demonstrates the intercondyloid fossa?
A. Shovel view
B. Sunrise view
C. Tunnel view
D. Skyline view
C. Tunnel view
Which of the following positions/projections requires the foot vertical and the tube angled 40 degrees cephalad?
A. AP ankle
B. Cross-table lateral hip
C. Plantodorsal, axial calcaneus
D.
Dorsoplantar foot
C. Plantodorsal, axial calcaneus
Where should the central ray enter for a medial oblique position of the 3rd toe?
A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint
B. 3rd distal interphalangeal joint
C. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
D. 3rd intertarsal joint
A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint
What is the name of the largest bone in the lower leg?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Fibula
D. Talus
B. Tibia
Where should the central ray enter for a unilateral AP projection of the hip?
A. Acetabulum
B. Hip joint
B. Femoral neck
D. Mid-body (shaft) of the femur
C. Femoral neck
When one bone segment is driven into another it is known as what type of fracture?
A. Compound
B. Fatigue
C. Blow out
D. Impacted
D. Impacted
What is the hollow portion of the body (shaft) of a long bone called?
A. Osteum
B. Medullary cavity
C. Periosteum
D. Cortex
B. Medullary cavity
How many tarsal bones are there in the foot?
A. 3
B.
5
C. 7
D. 9
C. 7
With the foot and lower leg rotated medially 45 degrees, what position of the ankle would be obtained?
A. AP
B. Semi-axial
C. Oblique
D. Steep lateral
C. Oblique
What is the name of the bony projection on the tibial plateau?
A. Tibial tuberosity
B. Tibial tubercle
C.
Intercondyloid eminence
D. Superior epicondyle
C. Intercondyloid eminence
What is the name of the largest bone in the lower extremity?
A. Fibula
B. Tibia
C. Femur
D. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
C. Femur
Where should the central ray enter for an AP projection of the shoulder joint?
A. Acromion process
B.
Scapular notch
C. Glenoid process
D. Coracoid process
D. Coracoid process
Why does an AP projection of the foot require a 10 degree angle toward the calcaneus (os calcis)?
1. Toes have a natural 10 degree curvature
2. Intertarsal joints lie at a 10 degree angle
3. The strongest x-rays go through the thickest part
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
Where should the central ray enter for a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint
B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal
C. Anterior talus
D. Medial cuneiform
B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal
Which of the following would be another name for the translateral hip
projection?
1. Cross-table lateral
2. O.R. lateral
3. Inferosuperior projection
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
The extremities, the shoulder girdles, and the pelvis make up which of the following?
A. Bony skeleton
B. Axial skeleton
C. Appendicular skeleton
D. False skeleton
C. Appendicular skeleton
Which of the following fractures is caused by a diseased bone?
A. Fatigue fracture
B. Pathological fracture
C. Medullary fracture
D. Disuse atrophy fracture
B. Pathological fracture
What type of fracture is often seen in children where one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent?
A. Compression fracture
B.
Greenstick fracture
C. Colles' fracture
D. Jones fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
The medial cuneiform articulates with which of the following?
A. Cuboid
B. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
C. First metatarsal
D. First phalanx
C. First metatarsal
Which of the following describes a compound fracture?
A. The broken
bone pierces the skin
B. The break is in the lower leg
C. The bone is in many small pieces
D. The fracture is in the skull
A. The broken bone pierces the skin
How many interphalangeal joints are in the third digit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
What are the names of the bones that form the instep of the foot?
A. Tarsals
B. Phalanges
C. Metatarsals
D. Cuneiforms
C. Metatarsals
What is the term used to describe the inferior surface of the foot?
A. Dorsal
B. Plantar
C. Volar
D. Palmar
B. Plantar
The term popliteal refers to which of the following anatomical areas?
A. Anterior knee
B. Posterior
knee
C. Lateral knee
D. Medial knee
B. Posterior knee
For an oblique position of a foot, how many degrees should the foot be rotated?
A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees
B. 30 degrees
How many distal phalanges are there in a foot?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 12
D. 14
B. 5
Which of the following is an inflammation of the fluid-filled sacs that surround a joint?
A. Bursitis
B. Callus
C. Atrophy
D. Acetylcholine
A. Bursitis
What is the rounded process on the proximal, lateral aspect of the femur called?
A. Lateral epicondyle
B. Greater trochanter
C. Greater tuberosity
D. Femoral
tuberosity
B. Greater trochanter
What is the name of the process that extends anteriorly from the scapula?
A. Acromion process
B. Coronoid process
C. Glenoid process
D. Coracoid process
D. Coracoid process
What anatomical structures are referred to as the "knuckles"?
A. Metacarpophalangeal joints
B.
Carpometacarpal joints
C. Interphalangeal joints
D. Intercarpal joints
A. Metacarpophalangeal joints
Which of the following bones articulates with the bases of the metatarsals?
A. Proximal phalanges
B. Distal phalanges
C. Tarsals
D. Tibia and fibula
C. Tarsals
How many phalanges are in the thumb?
A.
1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
What is the most proximal end of the fibula called?
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Lateral malleolus
D. Apex
D. Apex
Which of the following terms relates to the top of the foot?
A. Plantar
B. Dorsal
C. Volar
D. Ventral
B. Dorsal
Which anatomical landmarks are used to locate the neck of the femur?
A. Symphysis and greater trochanter
B. Symphysis and crest of the ilium
C. Symphysis and ASIS
D. Symphysis and ischial tuberosity
C. Symphysis and ASIS
Which direction and how many degrees must the tube be angled to best visualize the knee joint, of a large patient, in an AP projection?
A.
Cephalad, 5 degrees
B. Caudad, 5 degrees
C. Cephalad, 15 degrees
D. Caudad, 15 degrees
A. Cephalad, 5 degrees
What is the best way to determine a true lateral position of the knee?
1. Femoral condyles superimposed
2. Malleoli on same transverse plane
3. Knee flexed 90 degrees
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
A. 1 only
What is another name for an AP projection of the foot?
A. Subtalar projection
B. Dorsoplantar projection
C. Plantodorsal projection
D. Semi-axial projection
B. Dorsoplantar projection
Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus anteriorly?
A. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
B. Cuboid
C. Cuneiform
D. Navicular
D. Navicular
What are the two small bones called that are located at the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
A. Sesamoids
B. Phalanges
C. Tarsals
D. Metatarsals
A. Sesamoids
When the patient is in a Cleaves position (frog), how are the patient's thighs positioned?
A. Adducted
B. Abducted
C. Elevated
D. Extended
B. Abducted
How many degrees should the tube be angled for an AP axial projection of the clavicle of an average patient?
A. 15 degrees caudad
B. 15 degrees cephalad
C. 45 degrees caudad
D. 45 degrees cephalad
B. 15 degrees cephalad
An infection of the bone is referred to as what?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteoblast
C.
Osteosclerosis
D. Osteoporosis
A. Osteomyelitis
For a lateral position of the knee, the joint space will NOT be obscured by the medial femoral condyle if the CR is angled 5 degrees in which direction?
A. Cephalad
B. Medially
C. Caudad
D. Laterally
A. Cephalad
Which of the following positions/projections will best show the space between the patella and the femur?
A. AP
B. Axial
C. Internal oblique
D. External oblique
B. Axial
Where should the central ray enter for a lateral projection of the 1st toe?
A. Interphalangeal joint
B. Proximal interphalangeal joint
C. Distal interphalangeal joint
D. Head of the 1st metatarsal
A. Interphalangeal joint
When radiographing the hip in the AP projection, what should be done to the patient's foot?
A. Elevated
B. Rotated internally
C. Rotated externally
D. Abducted
B. Rotated internally
Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus inferiorly?
A. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
B. Cuboid
C. Cuneiform
D. Navicular
A. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
Which of the following is NOT a border of the scapula?
A. Lateral
B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Medial
B. Inferior
Which of the following serves to fasten muscles to bones?
A. Ligaments
B. Tendons
C. Extenders
D. Meniscus
B. Tendons
"Osteoarthritis" is defined by which of the following?
A. Degenerative muscle disease
B. Chronic joint disease
C. A joint injury
D. Malignant joint tumor
B. Chronic joint disease
What is the name of the joint between the two bones of the shoulder girdle?
A. Acromioclavicular joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Sternoclavicular joint
D. Scapular notch
A. Acromioclavicular joint
What is the radiographic examination of the menisci called?
A. Phlebography
B. Popliteal angiogram
C. Tibial radiography
D. Knee arthrography
D. Knee arthrography
Which of the following is a benign bone tumor?
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Osteoma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Osteodystrophy
B. Osteoma
Which two bones make up the shoulder girdle?
A. Clavicle and humerus
B. Clavicle and scapula
C. Scapula and humerus
D. Scapula and sternum
B. Clavicle and scapula
What is the name of the largest tarsal bone?
A. Talus
B. Cuboid
C. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
D. Navicular
C. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
How many degrees is the hand rotated for an oblique position?
A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees
C. 45 degrees
For a cross-table lateral of the hip, where is the central ray directed?
A. Parallel to the body (shaft) of the femur
B. Parallel to the neck of the femur
C. Perpendicular to the neck of the
femur
D. Perpendicular to the acetabulum
C. Perpendicular to the neck of the femur
Which of the following is a primary bone malignancy?
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Osteoma
C. Rickets
D. Osteomyelitis
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
Which of the malleoli is part of the distal tibia?
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C.
Medial
D. Lateral
C. Medial
What is the most distal portion of the fibula called?
A. Apex
B. Lateral malleolus
C. Medial malleolus
D. Head
B. Lateral malleolus
What is the name of the structure that separates the two posterior fossae of the scapula?
A. Scapular notch
B. Acromion process
C. Spine of
the scapula
D. Coracoid process
C. Spine of the scapula
How must the patient's arm be positioned for a good AP projection of the scapula?
A. Adducted
B. Abducted
C. Internally rotated
D. Externally rotated
B. Abducted
What is the name of the groove between the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus?
A.
Trochlear
B. Humeral
C. Bicipital
D. Surgical
C. Bicipital
What is the rounded projection on the anterior, proximal surface of the tibia called?
A. Tibial plateau
B. Tibial tuberosity
C. Intercondylar eminence
D. Tibial condyle
B. Tibial tuberosity
Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the olecranon process of the ulna?
A. AP
B. 45 degree internal oblique
C. 45 degree external oblique
D. 90 degree lateral
D. 90 degree lateral
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus?
A. AP internal rotation
B. AP external rotation
C. Transthoracic lateral
D. Transaxillary
B. AP external rotation
What view of the patella will be obtained with the patient prone and the affected knee flexed 90 degrees?
A. Settegast
B. Merchant
C. Hughston
D. Stecher
A. Settegast
What is the area called that separates the medial and lateral femoral condyles posteriorly?
A. Intertrochanteric fossa
B. Olecranon fossa
C. Epicondyloid
fossa
D. Intercondyloid fosa
D. Intercondyloid fossa
Which of the following is commonly called "skin cancer"?
A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis
C. Epidermitis
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
The lateral cuneiform articulates with which of the following bones of the foot?
1. 3rd
metatarsal
2. Cuboid
3. Navicular
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
Which side of the foot is closest to the image receptor for a lateral position of the foot?
A. Plantar
B. Dorsal
C. Lateral
D. Medial
C. Lateral
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand?
A. Tunnel
B. Carpal
C. Ulnar flexion
D. Lateral in extension
D. Lateral in extension
What is the name of the concave, articular surface of the proximal tibia?
A. Intercondylar eminence
B. Tibial plateau
C. Tibial tuberosity
D. Anterior crest of the tibia
B. Tibial plateau
Which of the following should NOT be seen in an AP radiograph of the hip if the femur is rotated correctly?
A. Lesser trochanter
B. Greater trochanter
C. Femoral neck
D. Intertrochanteric crest
A. Lesser trochanter
Where is the anatomical neck of the humerus located in relation to the surgical neck?
A. Lateral
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Medial
B. Superior
The head of the humerus articulates with which part of the scapula?
A. Glenoid cavity
B. Olecranon fossa
C. Scapular notch
D. Styloid process
A. Glenoid cavity
Which of the following anatomical structures would NOT be seen in a radiograph of the elbow?
A. Head of the radius
B. Olecranon process
C.
Coronoid process
D. Styloid process of the radius
D. Styloid process of the radius
Which of the following positions/projections should be done if the patient has a suspected hip fracture?
A. AP and PA
B. AP and Cleaves
C. AP and cross-table lateral
D. Internal and external rotation
C. AP and cross-table lateral
Which
of the following must be done for a properly positioned AP projection of the ankle?
1. Ankle joint flexed
2. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad
3. Plantar surface touching the image receptor
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
A. 1 only
What is the most proximal end of the ulna called?
A. Styloid process
B. Olecranon process
C. Deltoid tuberosity
D. Trochlea
B. Olecranon process
On which side of the foot does the cuboid lie?
A. Plantar
B. Dorsal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
D. Lateral
What is the name of the radiographic procedure where contrast medium is injected into the veins of the leg?
A. Lymphangiography
B. Arteriography
C. Scanography
D. Venography
D. Venography
The medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, and talus form which joint?
A. Knee
B. Ankle
C. Foot
D. Subtalar
B. Ankle
To prevent superimposition of the bones of the forearm, which of the following positions/projections must be taken?
A. AP
B. PA
C. Oblique position
D. Lateral position
A. AP
What is a fracture at the distal end of the radius called?
A. Colles' fracture
B. Fatigue fracture
C. March fracture
D. Jones fracture
A. Colles' fracture
To get the wrist nearest the image receptor for a PA projection, which of the following must be done?
A. Elbow flexed 90 degrees
B. Digits extended
C. Digits
separated
D. Digits flexed
D. Digits flexed
In this radiograph, what position is the elbow in?
A. AP
B. 45 degree internal oblique
C. 45 degree external oblique
D. 90 degree lateral
C. 45 degree external oblique
Which of the following positions could be used if there is an obvious fracture of the upper humerus?
A. AP internal rotation
B. AP external rotation
C. Transaxillary
D. Transthoracic lateral
D. Transthoracic lateral
What is the rounded process on the proximal, medial aspect of the femur called?
A. Medial epicondyle
B. Lesser tuberosity
C. Lesser trochanter
D. Femoral tuberosity
C. Lesser trochanter
"Gout" is a disease of the joint that is a result of which of the following?
A. Inactivity
B. Inflammation
C. Injury
D. Excessive uric acid
D. Excessive uric acid
Which bone in the forearm is located laterally?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Scaphoid
A. Radius
The accuracy of a lateral elbow can be determined by the superimposition of which of the following?
A. Humeral condyles
B. Radius and ulna
C. Trochlea and radial head
D. Coronoid process and radial head
A. Humeral condyles
Which of the following will place the humerus in a true lateral position?
A. AP internal rotation
B. AP external rotation
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
B. AP internal rotation
What are the routine positions/projections for a wrist?
A. AP and lateral
B. PA and oblique
C. PA, oblique, and lateral
D. Pa, oblique, and ulnar deviation
C. PA, oblique, and lateral
Where should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the knee joint?
A. 1 cm proximal to the base of the patella
B. 1 cm distal to
the apex of the patella
C. 1 cm distal to the base of the patella
D. Parallel to the patellar surface
B. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patella
The "frog" lateral is a common name given to a position for which of the following anatomical areas?
A. Intercondyloid fossa
B. Subtalar joint
C. Hip joint
D. Club foot
C. Hip joint
For a routine, lateral position of the wrist, which surface is nearest the image receptor?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Posterior
D. Ventral
A. Medial
Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the coronoid process of the ulna?
A. AP
B. 45 degree internal oblique
C. 45 degree external oblique
D. 90 degree lateral
B. 45 degree internal oblique
A medial oblique position of the foot will put which of the following structures closes to the image receptor?
A. Medial cuneiform
B. Cuboid
C. Talus
D. 5th metatarsal
A. Medial cuneiform
Where is the scapular notch located?
A. Superior to the scapular spine
B. Inferior to the scapular spine
C. Inferior to the
supraspinous fossa
D. Lateral to the acromion process
A. Superior to the scapular spine
At which end of the ulna is the styloid process located?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Proximal
D. Distal
D. Distal
Which of the carpal bones is "pea-shaped"?
A. Capitate
B. Pisiform
C. Luna
D. Hamate
B. Pisiform
Where does the trochlea lie in comparison to the capitulum?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
C. Medial
Which of the following is the most likely location for a fracture of the humerus?
A. Anatomical neck
B. Surgical neck
C. Medial condyle
D. Lateral condyle
B. Surgical neck
In this shoulder radiograph, the humerus is in which of the following positions?
A. Lateral
B. AP internal rotation
C. AP external rotation
D. Transaxillary
C. AP external rotation
A lateral position of the scapula requires which of the following?
A. Affected arm raised
B. Patient breathes slowly
C. Spine of scapula parallel to
image receptor
D. Central ray to coracoid process
A. Affected arm raised
How many bones are in an entire adult skeleton?
A. 100
B. 106
C. 200
D. 206
D. 206
The trochlea of the humerus articulates with which of the following anatomical structures?
A. Radial tuberosity
B. Head of the radius
C. Styloid
process of the ulna
D. Trochlear notch of the ulna
D. Trochlear notch of the ulna
Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the 3rd digit?
A. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
B. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
C. 3rd distal interphalangeal joint
D. 3rd carpophalangeal joint
B. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
Which two positions/projections are taken of a shoulder that has NOT been injured?
A. AP and external rotation
B. AP and PA
C. AP and transthoracic
D. AP internal and AP external rotation
D. AP internal and AP external rotation
A disorder that is present at birth is known as what?
A. Mutation
B. Congenital
C. Homogenous
D. Homozygous
B. Congenital
What is the name of the projection that can be palpated on the medial aspect of the humerus?
A. Olecranon process
B. Coronoid process
C. Coracoid process
D. Medial epicondyle
D. Medial epicondyle
Which carpal bone lies between the scaphoid and the triquetrum?
A. Lunate
B. Hamate
C. Capitate
D. Pisiform
A. Lunate
The capitulum of the humerus articulates with which of the following anatomical structures?
A. Styloid process of the radius
B. Head of the radius
C. Head of the ulna
D. Styloid process of the ulna
B. Head of the radius
For the best recorded detail, which of the following positions/projections of the clavicle should be used?
A. AP
B. PA
C. Lateral
D. Oblique
B. PA
What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?
A. Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
B. Talus
C. Patella
D. Cuboid
C. Patella
When radiographing the 2nd digit in the lateral position, which part of the digit is closest to the image receptor?
A.
Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
D. Lateral
Pronating the hand flat will put the thumb in what position?
A. AP
B. PA
C. Oblique
D. Lateral
C. Oblique
Which of the following cannot be palpated?
A. Styloid process of the ulna
B. Olecranon process
C. Radial tuberosity
D. Humeral
epicondyles
C. Radial tuberosity
The acromion is located on which of the following bones?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Clavicle
D. Scapula
D. Scapula
What does the root word "orth" mean?
A. Straight
B. Vertebra
C. Bone
D. Fracture
A. Straight
What is the function of the longitudinal arch of the foot?
A. Provides flexion for the foot
B. Connects the ankle and toes
C. Socket for attachment of metatarsals
D. Shock-absorbing support
D. Shock-absorbing support
The actual wrist joint is made up of which bones?
A. Scaphoid and lunate
B. Ulna and pisiform
C. Ulna, triquetral, and scaphoid
D. Radius,
scaphoid, and lunate
D. Radius, scaphoid, and lunate
For the frog-leg position of a unilateral hip, where is the central ray directed?
A. Perpendicular to the femoral neck
B. Parallel to the femoral neck
C. Parallel to the body (shaft)
D. Perpendicular to the acetabulum
A. Perpendicular to the femoral neck
Which of the following is the largest bone in the upper extremity?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Clavicle
C. Humerus
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the scaphoid bone in the wrist?
A. Ulnar deviation
B. Radial flexion
C. Lateral
D. Carpal canal
A. Ulnar deviation
Which of the
following is necessary for a true lateral position of the elbow?
1. Hand placed in a lateral position
2. Elbow flexed 90 degrees
3. Humeral epicondyles superimposed
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
Which of the following is necessary to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
A. CR perpendicular to the knee joint
B. CR
perpendicular to the lower leg
C. CR parallel to the patella
D. Knee fully flexed
B. CR perpendicular to the lower leg
Which of the following is NOT well demonstrated on an AP projection of the elbow?
A. Radial head
B. Radial tuberosity
C. Condyles of the humerus
D. Olecranon process
D. Olecranon process
What angle joins the medial and lateral border of the scapula?
A. Superior angle
B. Inferior angle
C. Lateral angle
D. Medial angle
B. Inferior angle
Which bones make up the elbow joint?
A. Radius and ulna
B. Radius and humerus
C. Radius, ulna, and humerus
D. Capitulum, trochlea, and radial head
C. Radius, ulna, and humerus
Which of the following would require a lateral rotation for its oblique position?
A. Hip
B. Knee
C. Ankle
D. 5th toe
D. 5th toe
Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?
A. Scaphoid
B. Lunate
C. Hamate
D. Pisiform
A. Scaphoid
The scapula is classified as what type of bone?
A. Long bone
B. Short bone
C. Irregular bone
D. Flat bone
D. Flat bone
Where does the central ray enter for an AP projection of the 1st digit (thumb)?
A. 1st metacarpophalangeal joint
B. 1st proximal interphalangeal joint
C. 1st distal interphalangeal joint
D. 1st carpophalangeal joint
A. 1st metacarpophalangeal joint
What are the joints called that are between the metacarpals and the proximal phalanges?
A. Interphalangeal joints
B. Carpometacarpal joints
C. Metacarpophalangeal joints
D. Synarthrodial joints
C. Metacarpophalangeal joints
What tissue is found in the medullary cavity of a long bone?
A. Cartilage
B. Marrow
C. Meniscus
D. Periosteum
B. Marrow
The trapezium articulates with which of the following?
A. Hamate
B. Pisiform
C. 1st metacarpal
D. 5th metacarpal
C. 1st metacarpal
The first metacarpal is located on which side of the hand?
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Ulnar
D. Inside
A. Lateral
Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the hand?
A. 3rd carpometacarpal joint
B. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
C.3rd interphalangeal joint
D. 3rd proximal carpal joint
B. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
Which of the following is used to determine if there is any separation of the AC joint?
A. Patient erect, steep oblique
B. Patient erect, holding weights
C. Patient supine
D. 15
degree cephalad angle
B. Patient erect, holding weights
What separates the head of the humerus from the body (shaft) of the humerus?
A. Anatomical neck
B. Bicipital groove
C. Lesser tubercle
D. Trochlea
A. Anatomical neck
Which of the following bones is in the proximal row of carpals?
A. Trapezoid
B.
Triquetrum
C. Capitate
D. Hamate
B. Triquetrum
What are the names for the bones located in the palm of the hand?
A. Phalanges
B. Metacarpals
C. Tarsals
D. Volars
B. Metacarpals
Which of the following bones is the longest?
A. 1st metacarpal
B. 2nd metacarpal
C. Ulna
D. Radius
C. Ulna
How many carpal bones are there in a normal right wrist?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
D. 8
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