Ch 1-4 Review New Learn efficiently and remember over time. Get personalized study reminders at intervals optimized for better retention. Track your progress on this set by creating a folder Or add to an existing folder Auditors must balance the cost of the audit with the need for precision. If materiality decreases, sample size will need to increase.
The study of auditing focuses on learning the rules, techniques, and computations required to analyze financial statements. C. Provide assurance regarding whether the client's financial statements are fairly stated.
Periodicity A. Signals the true state of a management assertion. B. The risk that the auditor will provide an unqualified
opinion on financial statements that are, in fact, materially misstated. B. Obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of the entity's business. B. The company's internal controls. C. Discuss the timing of the audit procedures with the client's management. C. Management has more information about the entity's
true financial position than do the absentee owners (i.e. stockholders). C. The opinion of an independent party is needed because a company is not likely to be considered objective with respect to its own financial statements. B. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements and the parties using the statements. B. To enhance auditor independence from the management of the corporation. C. There should be a well-planned approach for obtaining and evaluating evidence.
C. Offering an opinion concerning the accuracy of statements made on a client's web site relating to the client's online privacy policies. A. These services are applied only to
financial statements and financial statement accounts. D. Management assertions that are deemed to be of high risk. A.
Identify areas of relatively high risk of misstatement and plan the audit accordingly. D. Materiality is largely a matter of professional judgment. A. Make inquiries of the
predecessor auditor. A. Any disputes over significant accounting issues have been settled to the auditor's satisfaction. D. Determining engagement team requirements. C. Stockholders of the company. D. The statements taken as a whole do not fairly present the financial condition and results of operations of the company. B. The report indicates that the client's financial statements were audited in accordance with applicable auditing standards. A. The conformance of the financial statements with generally
accepted accounting principles. C. Members of the Board of Directors PCAOB B. Oversee the auditors of public companies in order to protect the interests of investors C. Public Companies Accounting Oversight Board D. Due care
C. Professional skepticism B. Management of the company C. Whether management has systems
in place to evaluate and effectively manage the entity's business risks B. Manufacturers' assertions about product quality C. Make recommendations for improving performance D. Compliance C. They are not employees of the entity being audited B. Detecting or deterring fraudulent activity D. A certain number of hours, which is based on the size of the company being audited, must be spent on each audit engagement D. Management of the organization. C. Defining the minimum standards of performance for an auditor B. Provide reasonable
assurance that the financial statements are not materially misstated because of fraud C. Efficiency of operations 19. Which of the following is not included in the broad category of assurance services?C. accounting or review services 20. Due professional care requiresA. Auditors to plan and perform their duties with the skill and care that is commonly expected of accounting professionals 21. Which of the following best describes the role of corporate governance?C. Holding the management team accountable to shareholders and other constituents for the utilization of the entity's resources. 22. Which of the following best describes what is meant by generally accepted auditing standards?C. Standards of quality for the auditor's performance 23. Which assertions may be tested for the "account balances" category of management assertions?B. Existence, rights and obligations, completeness, valuation and allocation 24. Which assertions may be tested for the transactions and events category of management assertions?C. Occurrence, completeness, authorization, accuracy, cutoff and classification 25. Which assertions may be tested for the presentation and disclosure category of management assertions?D. Occurrence, rights and obligations, completeness, classification and understandability, accuracy and valuation. 1. Engagement risk is:B. The auditor's risk of loss from events arising in connection with financial statements audited and reported upon 2. Engagement risk can be eliminated byD. Engagement risk cannot be eliminated Client risk as defined as. the overall risk of material misstatement 4. Under Statements on Auditing Standards, which of the following would be classified as an error?B. Misinterpretation by management of facts that existed when the financial statements were prepared 5. When assessing the risk of material misstatement, auditors evaluate the reasonableness of an entity's accounting estimates. An auditor normally would be concerned about assumptions that areA. Susceptible to bias 6. Which of the following characteristics most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of intentional manipulation of financial statements?C. Management places substantial emphasis on meeting earnings projections 7. Which of the following is a known misstatement?B. A fixed asset being recorded at the incorrect cost 8. Tolerable misstatement isD. Materiality allocated to a specific account 9. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the planning materiality?B. The entity's annualized interim (i.e. quarterly) financial 10. Which of the following is not a qualitative factor that may affect an auditor's establishment of materialityC. Firm policy sets materiality at 4% of pretax income 11. Which of the following is not a concern as to whether a misstatement is qualitatively material?B. The misstatement is less than 5% of pretax income 12. The risk that an auditor will conclude, based on substantive procedures, that a material error does not exist in an account balance when, in fact, such error does exist is referred to asB. Detection risk 13. The risk of material misstatement differs from detection risk in that itC. Exists independently of the actions of the auditor 14. All of the following are inherent risk exceptD. Supplies inventory is difficult to count 15. When an auditor increases the assessed level of risk of material misstatement because certain control procedures were determined to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase theC. Extent of substantive tests 16. Which of the following audit risk components may be assessed in qualitative terms?D. Both risk of material misstatement and detection risk 17. When an entity moves into a significant new line of business, all of the following increase exceptB. Acceptable audit risk 18. Which of the following procedures would not be used to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment?C. Verify proper valuation of inventory subject to technological obsolescence 19. Which of the following is not an important consideration in an auditor's evaluation of an entity's business risk?D. Audit standards require the auditor to evaluate the entity's business risk in order to provide suggestions to improve the entity's profitability 20. Which of the following relatively small misstatements most likely would have a material effect on an entity's financial statements?A. An illegal payment to a foreign official that was not 21. In general, frauds perpetrated by which of the following are most difficult to detect?D. Controller 22. The primary responsibility for preventing fraud in an organization lies withD. The management 23. All of the following represent an increased opportunity to commit fraud except:B. The auditor's relationship with management is strained 24. An auditor discovers a likely fraud during an audit but concludes that the overall effect of the fraud is not sufficiently material to affect the audit opinion. The auditor should probablyA. Disclose the fraud to the appropriate level of the client's management 25. Which of the following is the most important qualitative factor that auditors should consider when making materiality judgments? AC. The misstatement will cause the client to fail to meet an earnings forecast 26. The acceptable level of detection risk is inversely related to theA. Extent of the substantive procedures 27. As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, an auditor may change theB. Nature of substantive procedures from less effective to more effective 28. As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, the assurance directly provided fromA. Substantive procedures should increase 29. Increased fraud risk could also result in all of the following exceptC. Lower control risk 30. The objectives of the engagement partner's communication with the audit team includeD. Emphasizing the importance of professional skepticism 31. The auditor assumes a higher risk of fraud may exist ifC. Inadequate segregation of duties places an employee in a position to perpetrate and conceal theft 32. Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent financial reporting?A. Inability to generate cash flows from operations while reporting substantial earnings growth 33. A properly planned and performed audit may fail to detect a material misstatement resulting from fraud becauseA. Audit procedures that are otherwise effective may be ineffective for fraud that is concealed through collusion 34. Which of the following is correct concerning required auditor communications about fraud?A. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly by the auditor to the audit committee regardless of the amount involved 35. Which element(s) is/are pervasive to the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of fieldwork and reporting?A. The elements of materiality and audit risk 36. Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?B. An auditor considers materiality for the aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the financial statements individually 1. A confirmation is for verifying:C. a representation from a third party. 2. Which of the following elements ultimately determines the amount of audit work that is necessary in the circumstances to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion?A. Auditor judgment 3. To be sufficient, an evidence mustD. Be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to form an opinion 4. When completing an audit, an auditor asserts aboutC. presentation and disclosure 5. In testing plant and equipment balances, an auditor may physically inspect new additions listed on the summary of plant and equipment transactions for the year. This procedure is designed to obtain assertion aboutA. Occurrence 6. Tracing tests the assertion aboutB. Completeness 7. Vouching tests the assertion aboutA. Occurrence 8. Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?C. Copies of client sales invoices inspected by the auditor 9. Audit documents belong to theB. The auditor 10. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to verify management's assertion of completeness?Compare a sample of shipping documents to related sales invoices 11. The primary purpose of audit procedures isC. To gather corroborative evidence about management's assertions 12. An audit program is designed toD. Gather evidence about management's assertions 13. Which statement concerning audit evidence is not valid?B. The auditor performs tests to collect convincing evidence that the financial statements are not misstated 14. Each of the following might, by itself, form a valid basis for an auditor to reduce substantive testing except for theA. Difficulty and expense involved in testing a particular item 15. Of the following, the most reliable type of evidence typically isC. Reperformance 16. Which of the following presumptions is correct about reliability of audit evidence?D. An effective internal control system provides more reliable audit evidence 17. Which of the following types of documentary evidence should the auditor consider to be the most reliable?B. Confirmation of an account payable balance mailed by and returned directly to the auditor 18. Which of the following is the least persuasive documentation in support of an auditor's opinion?A. Schedules of details of physical inventory counts conducted by the client 19. Which of the following statements is generally correct about the appropriateness of audit evidence?A. The more effective the internal control, the more assurance it provides about the reliability of the accounting data and financial statements 20. Which of the following types of audit evidence is the most persuasive?C. Bank statements obtained from the client 21. Which of the following statements about accounting records and audit documentation is correct?A. Accounting records belong to the client 22. Audit documents record the results of the auditor's evidence-gathering procedures. When preparing audit documents, the auditor ensures audit documents areD. designed to facilitate the review and supervision of work done by auditors assigned to the engagement 23. Audit documents that record the procedures used by the auditor to gather evidence should beC. Designed in an orderly fashion to facilitate the review of audit work by the senior, manager, and partner on the engagement 24. In creating lead schedules for an audit engagement, the auditor begins withC. General ledger information, such as account numbers, prior-year account balances, and current year unadjusted information 25. Audit documentationD. May be in paper, electronic, or some other form 26. Based on conversations with the owner-manager of an audit client, the auditor ascertained that the company's primary motivation is to avoid paying income taxes. Based on this motivation, for the closing inventory, the auditor most concerned about assertion isCompleteness 27. Your audit client is under intense pressure to meet an earnings target. Which transaction assertion within the purchasing process are you most concerned with?Completeness 28. You are concerned with unrecorded transactions in the purchasing cycle. Which audit procedure are you most likely to use when auditing purchases?B. Tracing vendor invoices to accounting records 29. Which of the following statements concerning audit evidence is correct?D. A client's accounting data cannot be considered sufficient audit evidence to support the financial statements 30. The permanent audit file usually includes:B. Organizational chart. 31. The current audit file usually includes:A. Working trial balance. Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording. We can’t access your microphone!Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try againExample: Reload the page to try again!Reload Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoomPress Ctrl-0 to reset your zoomIt looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.Please upgrade Flash or install Chrometo use Voice Recording.For more help, see our troubleshooting page. Your microphone is mutedFor help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.Which of the following best describes why an independent auditor is asked to express an opinion?Which of the following best describes why an independent auditor is asked to express an opinion on the fair presentation of financial statements? An engagement to report on compliance with statutory requirements.
Why are financial statements audited by an independent auditor?The audit will determine the accuracy of the company's annual accounts as a fair reflection of its financial position. Independent auditors are often used to avoid conflicts of interest and to protect shareholders and potential investors in public companies.
Which of the following best describes the primary reason an independent auditor?Which of the following best describes the primary reason an independent auditor reports on financial statements? To add credibility, where appropriate, since management may not be perceived as objective with respect to its own financial statements.
What does an independent auditor do during a financial report audit?During the independent audit, the auditor will review the organization's financial statements to determine whether they adhere to “generally accepted accounting principles” (commonly referred to as “GAAP”).
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