Which of the following best describes the mode of inheritance of eye color in the white culture?

1. In humans, the HIV virus primarily attacks which
of the following types of cells?
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Red blood cells
(C) White blood cells
(D) Glial cells
(E) Neurons

C

3. A biologist counted 2,500 cells from an embryo
on a microscope slide and recorded the following
data.
Stm Number of Cells
Prophase 125
Metaphase 50
Anaphase 50
Telophase 250
Interphase 2250
Total 2,500
If these cells had been dividing randomly, it could
be·reasonably concluded that
(A) the duration of anaphase is approximately
one-half that of telophase
(B) prophase is approximately three times as long
·as telophase
(C) metaphase is the shortest stage of the cell
cycle
(D) interphase is the longest stage of the cell
cycle
(E) the chromosomes can first be seen .in
prophase

D

4. The different species of finches on the Galapagos
Islands are believed to have arisen as a result of
natural selection acting on populations of finches
that had experienced
(A) convergent evolution
(B) gene flow
(C) the bottleneck effect
(D) geographic isolation
(E) Hybrid sterility

D

7. Which of the following levels of organization
includes all of the others?
(A) Population
(B) Ecosystem
(C) Community
(D) Organism
{E) Habitat

B

9. The function of which of the following organelles
directly requires oxygen?
(A) Ribosome
(B) Mitochondrion
(C) Nucleus
(D) Centriole
.{E) Golgi apparatus

B

11. Adaptations that have enabled vertebrates to
survive on land include all of the. following
EXCEPT
(A} a water-resistant epidermis
(B) development of a bony skeleton
(C) development of lungs
(D) external fertilization
(E) embryos enclosed within membranes

D

13. Toads in a particular population vary in size. A
scientist observes that in this population, large
males mate with females significantly more often
than small males do. All·the following are plausible
hypotheses to explain this observation EXCEPT: .
(A) Females select large males more often than
they select small males as mates.
(B) Small females are more likely to mate with
small males and large females are more
likely to mate with large males.
(C) Large males are successful in competing for
mates more often than small males are.
(D) Large males occupy more breeding territory
. than small males do.
(E) The calls produced by large males· are more
attractive to females than the calls made by
small males.

B

17. Most cells that have become transformed into
cancer cells have which of the following
characteristics when compared to normal, healthy
cells?
(A) Shorter cell cycle
(B) More carefully regulated rates of cell division
(C) Lower rates of mitosis
(D) Higher rates of protein translation
(E) Identical DNA

A

18. If organisms A, B, and C belong to tbe same
order but to different families and if organisms D,
E, and F belong to the same family but to
different genera, which of the following pairs of
organisms would be expected to show the greatest
degree of structural homology?
(A) A and B
(B) A and C
(C) Band D
(D) C and F
(E) E and F

E

19. A prokaryotic cell has which of the following?
(A) Centrioles
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Plasma membrane
(D) Mitochondria
(E) Endoplasmic reticulum

C

20. Which of the following statements regarding
coenzymes is true?
(A) They are essential for metabolic reactions in
animals but not in plants.
(B) They can facilitate metabolic reactions by
combining with enzymes at their active
sites.
(C) They are minerals that alter the pH of cells
and thus increase the probability of
chemical reactions.
(D) They are synthesized in the rough
endoplasmic reticulum of eukaryotic cells.
(E) They typically work best at temperatures
below 37°C.

B

28. As the initial cleavage divisions proceed in a frog
embryo, which of the following results?
(A) The embryo increases in size.
(B) The cytoplasmic content of the individual
cells increases.
(C) The yolk mass increases in size.
{D) Individual cells become smaller.
(E) Individual cells become haploid.

D

29. Which of the following provides the weakest
evidence that mitochondria were once free-living
prokaryotes?
(A) Mitochondrial ribosomes resemble those of
prokaryotes.
(B) Mitochondria have DNA that is circular and
does not have associated protein.
(C) Enzyme pathways on mitochondrial
membranes resemble those found on modem
prokaryote membranes.
(D) Mitochondria reproduce by a process similar
to binary fission.
(E) Mitochondria and prokaryotes both are found
in a variety of sizes.

E

31. Analysis of DNA sequences from two individuals
of the same species results in a greater estimate
of genetic variability than does analysis of amino
acid sequences from the same individuals because
(A) different DNA sequences can code for the
same amino acid
(B) some amino acid variations cannot be
detected by protein electrophoresis
(C) DNA sequencing is a more reliable technique
than protein electrophoresis
(D) proteins are more easily damaged than
is DNA
(E) DNA is more heat-sensitive and therefore
varies more

A

34. Which of the following best describes why the
polymerAse chain reaction is a standard technique
used in molecular biology research?
(A) It uses inexpensive materials and produces
perfect results.
(B) It can purify specific sections of a DNA
molecule.
(C) It can produce large amounts of specific
DNA sequences.
(D) It can duplicate the entire human genome.
(E) It can produce large amounts of mRNA.

C

36. Which of the following best describes the
cells that result from the process of meiosis in
mammals?
(A) They are diploid.
(B) They can be used to repair injuries.
(C) They are genetically different from the parent
cell.
(D) They are genetically identical to all the other
cells in the body.
{E) They are identical to each other.

C

40. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are
related in that both
(A) require protein carriers
(B) depend on a concentration gradient
(C) occur via contractions of cytoskeletal
elements attached to membrane proteins
(D) are endergonic processes and thus require
the hydrolysis of ATP
(E) occur in eukaryotic cells but not in
prokaryotic cells

B

41. Which of the following statements about
mitochondrial chemiosmosis is NOT true? ..
(A) A proton gradient is established across the
inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
(B) The potential energy released from the
mitochondrial proton gradient is used to
produce ATP.
(C) The mitochondrial proton gradient provides
energy for muscle contraction.
(D) Proteins embedded in the inner mitochondrial
membrane play an important role in ATP
synthesis.
(E) Heat energy is required to establish the
electron transport chain.

E

42. ATP serves as a common energy source for
organisms because
(A) it is the smallest energy molecule
(B) it stores the least energy of any energy source
(C) its energy can be easily transferred to do
cellular work
(D) it is extremely stable and can be stored in the
cell for long periods of time
{E) traces of it have been found in fossils of
ancient organisms dating back to the
beginning of life on Earth

C

43. A spermatocyte produces the following four
sperm cells.

(n+1) (n+1) (n-1) (n-1)
These cells are the result of nondisjunction during
which of the following phases?
(A) Interphase (Gl or G2)
(B) Interphase (S)
(C) Mitosis
(D) Meiosis I
(E) Meiosis IT

D

44. Which metabolic process is common to both
aerobic cellular respiration and alcoholic
fermentation?
(A) Krebs cycle
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Electron transport chain
(D) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
(E) Production of a proton gradient

B

45. Which of the following is responsible for the
cohesive property of water?
(A) Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atoms
oftwo adjacent water molecules
(B) Covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms
of two adjacent water molecules
(C) Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atom of
one water molecule and a hydrogen atom of
another water molecule
(D) Covalent bonds between the oxygen atom of
one water molecule and a hydrogen atom of
another water molecule
(E) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
and other types of molecules

C

47. Which of the following processes is associated
with some prokaryotic cells but not with
eukaryotic cells?
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Aerobic respiration
(C) Meiosis
(D) Nitrogen fixation
(E) Endocytosis

D

49. Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the
buildup of a product which interacts with an
enzyme catalyzing one of the initial steps of the
pathway; this can be an example of
(A) transcriptional regulation
(B) thermodynamic regulation
(C) translational regulation
(D) feedback inhibition
(E) posttranslational modification

D

53. Which of the following is correct concerning
a spherical cell?
(A) As the diameter decreases, the surface area
remains the same.
(B) As the diameter decreases, the surface area
increases.
(C) As the diameter decreases, the surface to volume
ratio increases.
(D) As the diameter increases, the volume
decreases.
(E) The surface-to-volume ratio is independent
of the diameter.

C

54. Which of the following directly produces the most
ATP per mole of glucose during aerobic cellular
respiration?
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Electron transport chain and chemiosmosis
(C) Substrate-level phosphorylation
(D) Kreb's cycle
(E) Alcoholic fermentation

B

55. All of the following could reduce the yield of
photosynthetic products EXCEPT
(A) lower concentrations of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(B) increased photorespiration
(C) reduced carbon dioxide concentrations in the
air spaces of the leaf
(D) increased frequency of stomatal openings
(E) fewer Calvin cycle enzymes

D

56. Which of the following is true about the
production of polar bodies in humans?
(A) It increases genetic variability.
(B) It provides the maximum amount of
cytoplasm and resources to the ovum.
(C) It occurs in male and female vertebrates
during meiosis I.
(D) It is completed prior to fertilization.
(E) It results in nondisjunction.

B

57. Coat color in mice is determined by genes at
two loci. When black mice from a particular
population mate, they produce offspring in the
following ratios: 9 black : 3 brown : 4 white.
These results suggest that white coat color is
expressed as a result of
(A) dominance
(B) incomplete dominance
(C) codominance
(D) a sex-linked trait
(E) epistasis

E

58. Which of the following can be diagnosed by
examining a karyotype of an individual's white
blood cells?
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Alzheimer disease
(C) Down syndrome
(D) Cystic fibrosis
(E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

C

59. All of the following are common to
C3 and C4 photosynthesis EXCEPT
(A) Photolysis
(B) Initial step of C02 fixation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(D) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(E) Chemiosmotic phosphorylation

B

62. Enzyme used in the synthesis of mRNA
(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase

C

63. Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki
fragments to each other
(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase

A

64. Enzyme found in retroviruses that produce DNA
from an RNA template
(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase

E

65. Enzyme used to position nucleotides during DNA
replication
(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Restriction enzyme
(E) Reverse transcriptase

B

Assume that the alleles referred to all assort
independently.
66. Probability that the genotype Aa will be produced
by the parents A a x Aa
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 112
(E) 3/4

D

Assume that the alleles referred to all assort
independently.
67. Probability that the genotype ccdd will be
produced by the parents CcDd x CcDd
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 112
(E) 3/4

B

Assume that the alleles referred to all assort
independently.
68. Probability that the genotype Rr will be produced
by the parents Rr x rr
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 112
(E) 3/4

D

Assume that the alleles referred to all assort
independently.
69. Probability that the genotype ITSs will be
produced by the parents TTSs x TtSS
(A) 0
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 112
(E) 3/4

C

70. Synthesized at the ribosome
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids

A

71. Includes glycogen, chitin, cellulose, and glucose
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids

B

72. Used for insulation and buoyancy in marine Arctic animals
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids

D

73. Used to carry the genetic code
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Lipids
(E) Steroids

C

78. A membrane-bound electron carrier found in the electron
transport systems of both aerobic respiration and
photosynthesis
(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADp+
(E) Oxygen (02)

A

79. Coenzyme that transfers electrons from the Krebs cycle to the mitochondrial electron-transport chain at a lower energy level than that of electrons entering at the beginning of the chain
(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADp+
(E) Oxygen (02)

B

80. An intermediate electron acceptor for oxidations that occur in both glycolysis and in Krebs cycle reactions
(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADp+
(E) Oxygen (02)

C

81. The final electron acceptor for cellular respiration
(A) Cytochrome
(B) FADH2
(C) NAD+
(D) NADp+
(E) Oxygen (02)

E

Questions 90-92 are based on the following.
In the 1940's, A very, MacCieod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated
forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells.
The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are
outlined below.

Procedure I:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding extract to
culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure Ill:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA)
before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.

90. A reasonable conclusion to draw from the results
of the experiment is that
(A) DNA is the genetic material
(B) DNA replication is semiconservative
(C) DNA is a double helix
(D) DNA is translated into protein
(E) mutation is a change in the genetic material

A

Questions 90-92 are based on the following.
In the 1940's, A very, MacCieod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated
forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells.
The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are
outlined below.

Procedure I:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding extract to
culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure Ill:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA)
before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.

91. What was the purpose of treating the extract with
protein-degrading enzymes in Procedure II?
(A) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is
an enzyme
(B) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is
not a protein
(C) To destroy nucleic acids in the extract
(D) To destroy any capsules in the extract
(E) To prevent the extract from being
contaminated by nonencapsulated bacteria

B

Questions 90-92 are based on the following.
In the 1940's, A very, MacCieod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated
forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells.
The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are
outlined below.

Procedure I:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure II:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding extract to
culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow.
Procedure Ill:
Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA)
before adding extract to culture medium.
Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium.
Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow.

92. What was the purpose of treating the extract with
DNAse in Procedure III ?
(A) To remove the encapsulated bacteria from the
extract
(B) To serve as a positive control by demonstrating
that a protein in the extract is the
transforming factor
(C) To serve as a negative control by demonstrating
that transformation does not occur
without DNA
(D) To destroy enzymes in the extract
(E) To destroy any capsules that might be in the
extract

C

Questions 111-114
A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA
molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded
into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected
to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the
gel is stained.

111. The rate of migration of the DNA fragments
through the agarose gel is determined by the
(A) ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment
(B) presence of hydrogen bonds between base
pairs
(C) length of time the electrophoresis unit is
allowed to operate
(D) number of nucleotides in the fragment
(E) volume of the starting sample

D

Questions 111-114
A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA
molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded
into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected
to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the
gel is stained.

112. Which of the following is true of the dye used to
stain the fragments?
(A) It increases the contrast between the agar and
the DNA fragments.
(B) It must be accounted for when calculating the
molecular weight of the fragments.
(C) Its charged areas interfere with the migration
of the DNA.
(D) It is bonded only to the sticky ends of the
fragments and can directly determine the
sequence of the DNA fragments.
(E) It gives a three-dimensional view of the
structure of the DNA fragments.

A

Questions 111-114
A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA
molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded
into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected
to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the
gel is stained.

113. The type and density of the gel are important
because
(A) they influence the rate of migration of the
fragments
(B) they may cause some DNA molecules to
replicate
(C) some DNA nucleotides may be lost due to
chemical reactions with the gel
{D) some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom
and not migrate
(E) some DNA molecules may cross-link

A

Questions 111-114
A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA
molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded
into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected
to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the
gel is stained.

114. The procedures described can be used to do all of
the following EXCEPT
(A) isolate and purify certain DNA fragments
(B) synthesize novel DNA molecules
(C) study the activity of restriction enzymes
{D) calculate the size of DNA fragments
(E) identify the source of DNA material

B

117. Water enters and leaves the plant cells
primarily by
(A) endocytosis
(B) phagocytosis
(C) osmosis
(D) active transport
(E) facilitated diffusion

C

Questions 118-120
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females
from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with
the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.

Parental Generation Cross
White-eyed females X red-eyed males

F1 Generation (at least 500 flies)
100% of females are red-eyed
100% of males are white-eyed

F1 Generation Cross
F1 red-eyed females x white-eyed males

F2 Generation (at least 500 flies)
50% of females are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed
50% of males are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed

118. The best explanation for the red-eyed F1 females
is
(A) mutation
(B) culture contamination
(C) dominance
(D) multiple loci
(E) sex-influenced traits

C

Questions 118-120
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females
from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with
the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.

Parental Generation Cross
White-eyed females X red-eyed males

F1 Generation (at least 500 flies)
100% of females are red-eyed
100% of males are white-eyed

F1 Generation Cross
F1 red-eyed females x white-eyed males

F2 Generation (at least 500 flies)
50% of females are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed
50% of males are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed

119. There are white-eyed females in the F2 generation
because
(A) white is a dominant allele
(B) the white allele is autosomal
(C) a mutation has occurred
(D) these F2 females have two white alleles
(E) the white allele is located on the Y
chromosome

D

Questions 118-120
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females
from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with
the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below.

Parental Generation Cross
White-eyed females X red-eyed males

F1 Generation (at least 500 flies)
100% of females are red-eyed
100% of males are white-eyed

F1 Generation Cross
F1 red-eyed females x white-eyed males

F2 Generation (at least 500 flies)
50% of females are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed
50% of males are red-eyed and 50% are
white-eyed

120. Which of the following best describes the mode of
inheritance of eye color in the white culture?
(A) Autosomal
(B) Dominant
(C) Located on the Y chromosome
(D) Sex-linked
(E) Lethal

D

Which of the following best describes the likely mode of inheritance for the eye color?

Is eye color incomplete dominance?

Is eye color a genotype or phenotype?

What is the term for a heritable feature such as eye color?