Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

Citation, DOI & article data

Citation:

Gorton, S., Jones, J. Ankle (mortise view). Reference article, Radiopaedia.org. (accessed on 26 Oct 2022) https://doi.org/10.53347/rID-40730

The ankle AP mortise (mortice is equally correct) view is part of a three view series of the distal tibia, distal fibula, talus and proximal 5th metatarsal.

On this page:

Mortise and mortice are variant spellings and equally valid 4.

This projection is the most pertinent for assessing the articulation of the tibial plafond and two malleoli with the talar dome, otherwise known as the mortise joint of the ankle 1,2.

The most common indication is a trauma to the ankle in the setting of suspected ankle fractures and/or dislocations including talar fractures.

Other indications include:

• assessment of fragment position and implants in postoperative follow up
• evaluation of fracture healing
• osteochondral injuries of the talus
• osteoarthritis of the ankle

• the patient may be supine or sitting upright with the leg straightened on the table
• the leg must be rotated internally 15° to 20°, thus aligning the intermalleolar line parallel to the detector. This usually results in the 5th toe being directly in line with the center of the calcaneum
• internal rotation must be from the hip; isolated rotation of the ankle will result in a non-diagnostic image
• foot should be in slight dorsiflexion

• anteroposterior projection
• centering point
  • the midpoint of the lateral and medial malleoli
• collimation
  • laterally to the skin margins
  • superiorly to examine the distal third of the tibia and fibula
  • inferior to the proximal aspect of the metatarsals
• orientation  
  • portrait
• detector size
  • 24 cm x 30 cm
• exposure
  • 50-60 kVp
  • 3-5 mAs
• SID
  • 100 cm
• grid
  • no

• the lateral and medial malleoli of the distal fibula and tibia, respectively, should be seen in profile
• uniformity of the mortise joint should be seen without any superimposition of either malleolus
• the base of the 5th metatarsal must be included in the inferior aspect of the image

In Australia, the mortise view is part of a three-part ankle series, yet in other countries, including the United Kingdom, the mortise view is the primary 'AP projection' of the ankle alongside the lateral projection. 

Aligning the 5th  toe to the center of the calcaneus is a practical way to gauge optimal internal rotation needed to demonstrate the mortise joint. Another way to ensure correct positioning is by rotating the leg internally until the central line of the collimation field is in line with the 5th metatarsal.

Often if the foot is not in dorsiflexion, the mortise joint will not be in full profile.

In trauma, it is important to obtain a diagnostic mortise view for the proper assessment of the mortise joint. Trauma patients may not have the ability to rotate their lower limb internally, in this case, the x-ray beam can be angled 15-20° medially to achieve the view although this will result in some artifactual elongation of structures.

Fractures of the 5th metatarsal may also be seen and the medial clear space might be assessed in this view 3.

References

Related articles: Imaging in practice

Promoted articles (advertising)

1. Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the ankle?

   over the posterior half of the tibia

2. The distal of the gallbladder is the:

   fundus

3. The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

   body

4. The valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle is called the:

   tricuspid valve

5. T9 and T10 are located at the level of the:

   xyphoid process

6. Ideally, the cathode end of an x-ray tube should be positioned to take advantage of the "heel effect" of the tube. Where should the cathode be placed for an AP thoracic spine?

   toward the feet

7. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:

   epiphysis

8. Some synovial joints contain synovial-fluid filled sacs outside the main joint cavity called:

   bursae

9. A malformation of the acetabulum causing displacement of the femoral head is known as:

   congenital hip dysplasia

10. Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland?

    behind the manubrium

11. Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement?

    ball and socket

12. The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is:

    5 to 7 degrees cephalad

13. The body is placed at what angle for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?

    45 degrees

14. Which of the following will be directly superimposed over the junction of the "Y" on the PA oblique (scapula Y) projection?

    humeral head

15. For an AP projection of the shoulder with the humerus in internal rotation, the epicondyles of the humerus should be:

    perpendicular to the plane of the IR

16. The only saddle joint in the human body is the:

    first digit, carpometacarpal joint

17. Diverticula are most common seen in which part of the colon?

    sigmoid colon

18. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the upright position?

    2 inches above the iliac crest

19. What is the longest segment of the small intestine?

    iliem

20. Where is the IR centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral projection of the cervical spine?

    fourth cervical vertebra

21. Which structure carries oxygenated blood to the left atrium?

    pulmonary veins

22. Which aspect of the large intestine is best demonstrated with a RAO position?

    right colic flexure

23. If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, which side must the patient lie on?

    affected side

24. What is the term for a bending motion of an articulation, decreasing the angle between associated bones?

    flexion

25. Where should the center of the IR be positioned for a transthoracic lateral projection of the proximal humerus?

    surgical neck

26. Which of the following describes the central ray centering point for the L5-S1 lateral projection?

    2 inches posterior to the ASIS and inches below the iliac crest

27. Where is the central ray directed for a  lateral projection of the humerus?

    midpoint of the humerus

28. S1 and S2 are located at the level of the:

    anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)

29. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine"

    level of T7

30. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

    spondyloidthesis

31. For the PA oblique projection (scapula Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated so that the midcoronal plane is how many degrees from the IR?

    45 to 60 degrees

32. At what level is the sternal angle?

    T4/T5

33. Symphysis pubis is located at the level of:

    greater trochanters

34. Which line is placed perpendicular to the IR for the parietoorbital (Rhese) projection of the optic canal?

    acanthiomeatal line

35. For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed:

    90 degrees

36. Which joint is an example of a amphiarthroidal joint?

    intervertebral joint

37. The superior and inferior vena cava empty returning blood into which part of the heart?

    right atrium

38. For an AP projection of the toes, the central ray is directed to the:

    third MTP joint

39. How many feet make up the small intestine?

    23

40. A fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is known as a ____ fracture.

    Collie's

41. Which of the following passes through the carpal "tunnel"?

    median nerve

42. When viewed from the side, the vertebral column presents how many curves?

    4

43. The first cervical vertebra is called the:

    atlas

44. A chronic condition with persistent obstruction of the bronchial airflow is termed:

    chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

45. L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:

    superior aspect of the iliac crests

46. What quadrant is the liver located?

    RUQ

47. If the patient cannot be placed in the lordotic position for radiography of the pulmonary apices, what is the central-ray angle that can be used to project the clavicles above the apices?

    15-20 degrees cephalad

48. Which ligament is part of the knee?

    posterior inferior tibiotalar ligament

49. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on the PA axial projection of the cervical spine?

    those closest to the IR

50. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibifibular articulation?

    45 degree internal rotation

51. If the infraorbitomeatal line is placed perpendicular to the IR during an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull, how much is the central ray angled?

    37 degrees caudad

52. Blunting of the costophrenic angles on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of:

    pleural effusion

53. Which type of body habitus has a high and transverse stomach?

    hypersthenic

54. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except:

    the lobes of the left lung are separated by the horizontal fissure

55. The largest and strongest bone in the body is the:

    femur

56. Some synovial joints contain a thick cushioning pad of fibrocartilage called the:

    meniscus

57. If the IR and wrist are placed flat on the table for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method), the central ray must be angled:

    20 degrees

58. An abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine is termed:

    kyphosis

59. Which sinus is projected through the mouth on the open-mouth modification of the Waters method?

    sphenoidal

60. What bone articulates with the semi-lunar notch of the ulna?

    trochlea

61. Often, the leg is to long to fit on one IR for radiographs. Which joint or joints should be included on the IR when the site of a lesion is known?

    the joint closest to the lesion

62. What skull type is narrow from side to side?

    dolichocephalic

63. What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the left lateral decubitus position?

    expiration

64. How many bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

    126

65. What is the recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph?

    72 inches

66. Which structure is the most superior?

    laryngopharynx

67. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanges by diffusion within the:

    alveoli

68. For a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder, lung detail may be blurred to better visualize the shoulder area. Which exposure time is recommended to blur the lung structures?

    minimum of 3 seconds

69. What angle would be utilized on an AP axial (lordotic) chest?

    15-20 degrees cephalad

70. In which region is the splenic flexure?

    left hypochondrium

71. At which level should the central ray enter the base of the skull for the SMV projection of the sinuses?

    3/4 inch below the mental protuberance

72. Which of the following is located in the internal ear?

    transverse foramen

73. The outermost layer of the pleura is referred to as the:

    parietal pleura

74. To prevent lateral rotation, how should the foot be positioned for a lateral projection of the ankle?

    in dorsiflexion

75. For a lateral projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to the:

    second digit of MCP joint

76. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

    LPO

77. The term varus refers to

    turned inward

78. Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

    1. trauma or other pathology
    2. greater than 90-degree flexion
    3. less than 90-degree flexion

    1 and 3 only

79. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

    Medial oblique elbow

80. The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)?

    1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet.
    2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees.
    3. The male ilium is more vertical.

    2 and 3 only

81. Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

    Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad.

82. With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-2, which of the following will be visualized?

    1. Intercondyloid fossa
    2. Patellofemoral articulation
    3. Tangential patella

    2 and 3 only

83. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

    the inferior portion of the lung is the apex.

84. All the following statement regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

    the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.

85. What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2-3?

    Rotate the pelvis slightly backward.

86. Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

    right ventricle

87. Widening of the intercostal spaces is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

    Emphysema

88. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

    1. Hepatic flexure
    2. Gallbladder
    3. Ileocecal valve

    1 and 2 only

89. Which of the following statements regarding the image in Figure 2-4 is correct?

    The left kidney is more parallel to the IR.

90. During the upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is mostly likely

    LPO

91. Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

    1. Talotibial
    2. Talocalcaneal
    3. Talofibular

    1 and 3 only

92. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

    Lateral weight-bearing

93. Graves disease is associated with

    thyroid overactivity

94. To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made

    on expiration

95. In an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

    Occipital bone

96. The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

    1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
    2. right iliac wing
    3. right anterior iliopubic column

    1 and 2 only

97. Figure 2-5 demonstrates which of the following conditions?

    dextrocardia

98. A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

    RAO

99. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

    spondylolisthesis

100. During atrial systole, blood flows into the

     1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
     2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
     3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

     2 and 3 only

101. How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

     include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position.

102. All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

     metformin should be with held for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.

103. Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2-6?

     Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degree from horizontal

104. Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-6 is (are) true?

     1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses.
     2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits.
     3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity.

     1,2, and 3

105. Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap on the oblique projection of the hand?

     Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

106. All of the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclaviclar articulations except

     weight-bearing

107. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

     LPO

108. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

     1. with humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
     2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
     3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

     1 and 2 only

109. Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

     lateral decubitus, affected side up

110. Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

     cardiac apex

111. For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

     0 degrees (perpendicular)

112. In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2-7 made?

     medial oblique

113. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-7?

     olecranon process

114. Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictures in Figure 2-8?

     1. apophyseal articulations
     2. intervertebral foramina
     3. pedicles

     2 and 3 only

115. In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris requires for an accurate diagnosis?

     1. supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
     2. prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
     3. prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

     1 only

116. Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

     AP or PA through the foramen magnum

117. The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones except

     the occipital bone

118. A lateral projection of the hand in extension often recommended to evaluate

     1. a fracture
     2. a foreign body
     3. soft tissue

     2 and 3 only

119. in which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-9 taken

     RPO

120. The structure indicated as number 4 in Figure 2-9 is the

     cecum

121. The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is

     an atrial septal defect

122. Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

     PA oblique scapular Y

123. With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feel, the patient is said to be in the

     Trendelenberg position

124. Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?

     1. RAO
     2. LAO
     3. RPO

     2 and 3 only

125. In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuniforms best demonstrated?

     lateral oblique foot

126. The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

     T5

127. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

     1. spleen
     2. gallbladder
     3. hepatic flexure

     2 and 3 only

128. To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

     the recumbent position

129. Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2-10 is (are) true?

     1. correct degree of rotation is present
     2. midphalanges are foreshortened
     3. fingers are parallel to the IR

     1 and 2 only

130. The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long in an adult is

     yellow marrow

131. All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except

     intertrochanteric line

132. Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

     Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

133. Which of the following statements with respect to the PA chest seen in Figure 2-11 is (are) correct?

     1. adequate inspiration is demonstrated
     2. the shoulders are rolled forward adequately
     3. rotation is demonstrated

     1,2, and 3

134. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

     Prominence of the greater trochanter

135. A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to

     1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
     2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
     3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR

     1 and 2 only

136. To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?

     1. close collimation
     2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient
     3. decreased SID

     1 and 2 only

137. Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

     1. intercondyloid fossa
     2. tibial condyles
     3. tibial tuberosity

     2 and 3 only

138. Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

     1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
     2. lesser tubercle in profile
     3. superimposed epicondyles

     2 and 3 only

139. Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

     Internal rotation

140. With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?

     15 to 30 degrees caudad

141. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

     avulsion fracture

142. What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

     trochlea

143. Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

     adduction

144. During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

     subarachnoid space

145. The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

     bregma

146. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-12?

     1. The patient is placed in an RAO position.
     2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR.
     3. The acromion process is free of superimposition.

     1,2, and 3

147. Examples of synovial pivot articulations in the

     1. atlantoaxial joint
     2. radioulnar joint
     3. temporomandibular joint

     1 and 2 only

148. The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

     nose

149. An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

     contrecoup

150. In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

     Tangential metatarsals/toes

151. Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

     Osgood-Schlatter disease

152. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

     1. to demonstrated fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
     2. following inversion or eversion injuries
     3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

     2 and 3 only

153. Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?

     1. Manubrium
     2. Clavicles
     3. 24 ribs

     1 and 3 only

154. Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

     right main stem bronchus

155. The PA chest radiograph shown in Figure 2-13 demonstrates

     1. rotation
     2. scapulae removed from lung fields
     3. adequate inspiration

     1,2, and 3

156. The letter B in Figure 2-13 indicates

     a left anterior rib

157. With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

     coronoid process

158. The structures forming the brain stem include

     1. the pons
     2. the medulla oblongata
     3. the midbrain

     1,2, and 3

159. The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which if the following projections?

     1. lateral cervical spine
     2. lateral thoracic spine
     3. lateral lumbar spine

     2 and 3 only

160. What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

     dome of the acetabulum

161. The structure labeled 3 in Figure 2-14 is the

     spenoidal sinus

162. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-14?

     parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)

163. Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?

     1. modified Waters (mouth open)
     2. lateral
     3. PA axial

     1 and 2 only

164. The radiograph shown in Figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the

     1. talus and the calcaneus
     2. calcaneus and the cuboid
     3. talus and the navicular

     2 and 3 only

165. Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2-16.

     medial epicondyle

166. The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)

     30-degree oblique

167. The patient's chin should be elevated during a chest radiography to

     avoid superimposition on the apices

168. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

     epiphysis

169. Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

     AP projection

170. The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

     body

171. All of the following statements regarding the position shown in Figure 2-17 are true except

     the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7.

172. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

     45-degree internal rotation

173. At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

     C4

174. During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

     right lateral decubitus

175. What is the structure indicated by the number 8 in Figure 2-18?

     common bile duct

176. What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2-18?

     cystic duct

177. Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

     Hydronephrosis

178. Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

     Hysterosalpingogram

179. All of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

     single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

180. In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

     1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
     2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
     3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

     1,2, and 3

181. All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

     lateral

182. The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is

     hemoptysis

183. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

     gastric or bowel mucosa

184. Which of the following are mediastinal structures?

     1. Heart
     2. Trachea
     3. Esophagus

     1, 2, and 3

185. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the position illustrated in Figure 2-19?

     1. The right (adjacent to the table) ureter is parallel to the IR
     2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR
     3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees

     1,2, and 3

186. In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

     Internal rotation

187. With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

     intercondyloid fossa

188. Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure 2-21?

     Zygomatic arch

189. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

     1. knee
     2. intervertebral joints
     3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

     1 and 3 only

190. Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

     2 and 3 only

191. What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2-22?

     Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad

192. Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include

     1. pedicles
     2. lamina
     3. body

     1 and 2 only

193. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

     compound

194. The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

     midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

195. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

     1. scapular Y projection
     2. inferosuperior axial
     3. transthoracic lateral

     1,2, and 3

196. The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

     laminae

197. The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

     paralytic

198. Radiography of which if the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?

     1. kidney
     2. scapula
     3. sigmoid

     1,2, and 3

199. Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilica, and subclavian veins?

     upper-limb venogram

200. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the images shown in Figure 2-23?

     1. Image A was made with cephalad angulation
     2. Image B was made with cephalad angulation
     3. Image A and B were made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad

     1 only

201. The bony habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the

     asthenic

202. Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

     Horizontal beam lateral

203. Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

     Radial styloid process

204. Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?

     1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR
     2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on humeral shaft
     3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained

     2 and 3 only

205. Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?

     1. short, wide, transverse heart
     2. high and peripheral large bowel
     3. diaphragm positioned low

     1 and 2 only

206. Glossitis refers to inflammation of the

     tongue

207. With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

     Rami

208. During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

     1. the filling of the ureters
     2. the renal pelvis
     3. the superior calyces

     1 and 2 only

209. The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

     midcoronal plane

210. To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45 degrees

     toward the affected side

211. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 1 in Figure 2-24?

     spinous process

212. During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

     transverse colon

213. Central ray angulation may be required for

     1. magnification of anatomic structures
     2. foreshortening or self-superimposition
     3. superimposition of overlaying structures

     2 and 3 only

214. Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsmetatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

     Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

215. Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

     1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR
     2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally
     3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

     2 and 3 only

216. Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

     Patient AP with 30- to 35- degree angle cephalad

217. Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when

     anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR

218. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in

     magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

219. The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?

     1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
     2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
     3. infraorbitomeatal line (OML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

     1 and 3 only

220. In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in Figure 2-25 probably made?

     prone recumbent

221. A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

     1. sacral vertebrae
     2. thoracic vertebrae
     3. lumbar vertebrae

     1 and 2 only

222. Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?

     1. the IOML is parallel to the IR
     2. the MSP is parallel to the IR
     3. the CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM

     1 and 2 only

223. That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

     metaphysis

224. Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

     LAO

225. The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

     right iliac

226. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

     1. the procedure is performed in the erect position
     2. use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints
     3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected

     1 and 2 only

227. A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

     Ewing sarcoma

228. Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

     hilus

229. Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

     submentovertical (SMV)

230. Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

     1. patellar surface
     2. intertrochanteric crest
     3. linea aspera

     1 only

231. An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?

     myelogram

232. In figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following?

     head of rib

233. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?

     1. sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders
     2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm
     3. the esophagus is visible in the midline

     1 and 2 only

234. In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

     plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

235. In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

     1. talotibial joint is visualized
     2. talofibular joint is visualized
     3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

     1 and 3 only

236. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient

     1. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees caudad
     2. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad
     3. prone and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad

     2 only

237. All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except

     right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

238. Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaad method, "Ball-Catcher's position, "is (are) correct?

     1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained
     2. it is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis
     3. the hands are oblique about 45 degrees palm up

     1,2, and 3

239. Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

     1. prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
     2. supine, IR under flexed knee, perpendicular to tibia
     3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

     1 and 2 only

240. The scapula shown in Figure 2-29 demonstrates

     1. its posterior aspect
     2. its costal surface
     3. its sternal articular surface

     1 only

241. In Figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 3?

     Acromion process

242. In Figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 7?

     lateral border

243. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

     completely within the orbits

244. When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see

     1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits
     2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally
     3. symmetrical petrous pyramids

     1,2, and 3

245. Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

     hepatic flexure

246. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

     fourth lumbar vertebra

247. What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

     high and horizontal

248. In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the

     intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

249. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration

     1. elevates the diaphragm
     2. raises the ribs
     3. depresses the abdominal viscera

     2 and 3 only

250. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

     1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
     2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed
     3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs

     1 only

251. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding Figure 2-30?

     1. the image was made in the LAO position
     2. the CR should enter more inferiorly
     3. the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax

     2 and 3 only

252. To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-31. the radiographer should

     angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

253. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?

     1. intervertebral disk space
     2. C3-7 cervical bodies
     3. apophyseal joints

     1 and 2 only

254. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

     first metacarpal

255. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?

     1. the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal
     2. the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits
     3. the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized

     1 and 3 only

256. Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

     respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

257. To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

     a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

258. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?

     1. patency of the biliary ducts
     2. biliary tract calculi
     3. gallbladder calculi

     1 and 2 only

259. For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of the barium-filled stomach should enter

     midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

260. Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

     Dorsal decubitus position

261. Which of the following is (are) appropriate techniques(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?

     1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
     2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving patient.
     3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.

     (C) 2 and 3 only

262. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

     (C) Tangential patella

263. The structure labeled 5 in Figure 2-32 is the

     (D) anterior arch of C1

264. The structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-32 is the

     (C) odontoid process

265. Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

     (C) Voiding cystourethrogram

266. Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

     1. Clavicular body
     2. Acromioclavicular joint
     3. Sternocostal joint

     (B) 1 and 2 only.

267. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

     (C) Medical oblique

268. Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

     (A) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position.

269. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

     (A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins.

270. Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

     (D) Lateral oblique

271. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

     (D) AP erect, both shoulders

272. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

     1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
     2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
     3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.

     (C) 1 and 3 only

     I LOVE YOU!

273. The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

     (C) distal

274. With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a37- degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is the best demonstrated?

     (C) Facial bones

275. The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

     (B) aspiration

276. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves

     1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla
     2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct
     3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum

     (B) 1 and 2 only

277. Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fractures?

     1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
     2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
     3. Posterior or backward displacement

     (C) 2 and 3 only

278. The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed

     1. parallel to the central ray (CR)
     2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
     3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

     (C) 2 and 3 only

279. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?

     (A) Use restraint only when necessary

280. Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?

     1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
     2. Stent placement
     3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

     (B) 1 and 2 only

281. Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

     1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb.
     2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.
     3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

     (C) 2 and 3 only

282. Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be

     (B) NPO after midnight

283. The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called

     (C) Pulse

284. AP Trendelenburg position  is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate

     (C) Hiatal hernia

285. Which of the following positions would be the best choice for  a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

     (D) AP and scapular Y

286. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

     (A) AP Oblique, medical rotation

287. Which of the following bones participates(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?

     1. Ilium
     2. Ischium
     3. Pubis

     (C) 2 and 3 only

288. Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

     (B) Retrograde urography

289. The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed.

     1. 15 degrees cephalad
     2. 2 inches superior to the public symphysis
     3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubis symphysis

     (B) 2 only

290. Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

     (C) AP erect

291. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

     (C) 30-degree RPO

292. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in figure 2-33?

     1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
     2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
     3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A

     (D) 2 and 3 only

293. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

     (B) AP abdomen

     I'M VERY PROUD OF YOU! XXXOOOXX

294. Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

     (C) cathartics and cleansing enemas.

     EEWWW MUD BOOTY!

295. The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the  patient in a supine position with the affected thigh

     (D) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

296. Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiography  a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

     1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affective extremity should be performed by a physician.
     2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
     3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

     (B) 1 and 3 only

297. Which of the following projections require(s)
     that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

     1. AP humerus
     2. Lateral forearm
     3. Internal rotation shoulder

     (C) 2 and 3 only

298. Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out?

     1. Have patient empty the bladder.
     2. Review the patient's allergy history.
     3. Check the patient's creatinine level.

     1,2, and 3

     As far As I could get. Bought to pass out. I love you my angel. You can do it.

299. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the

     1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette
     2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible
     3. hand lateral and in internal rotation

     1,2, and 3

300. The image shown in Figure 2-34 was made in what position?

     right lateral decubitus

301. In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

     subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

302. To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

     must be supported parallel to the IR

303. Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?

     1. use of PA position
     2. use of breast shields
     3. use of compensating filtration

     1,2, and 3

304. Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

     diarthrodial

305. The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

     thyroid cartilage

306. In the AP projection of the ankle, the

     1. plantar surface of the foot id vertical
     2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia
     3. calcaneus is well visualized

     1 and 2 only

307. Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

     IVU

308. To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

     25 to 30 degrees LPO

309. Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

     superior vena cava

310. Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue?

     A postpubertal adolescent

311. Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

     Emergency and trauma radiography

312. Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

     Pulmonary embolism

313. Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?

     cholecystokinin

314. Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

     AP (medial) oblique

315. Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

     1. internal disk lesions
     2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord
     3. posterior disk herniation

     2 and 3 only

316. Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography?

     1. creatinine
     2. blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
     3. red blood cells (RBCs)

     1 and 2 only

317. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

     1. fractured lateral malleolus
     2. fractured medial malleolus
     3. fractured posterior tibia

     1,2, and 3

318. The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

     skeletal

319. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the

     1. brachiocephalic artery
     2. common carotid arteries
     3. vertebral arteries

     2 and 3 only

320. Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

     1. suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
     2. suspected large bowel obstruction
     3. preoperative patients

     1, 2, and 3

321. Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

     intussusception

322. Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in Figure 2-35?

     1. apophyseal articulations
     2. intervertebral foramina
     3. inferior articular processes

     1 and 3 only

323. Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?

     1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
     2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs.
     3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field.

     1,2, and 3

324. Which of the following is represented by the number 3 in Figure 2-36?

     aorta

325. Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?

     1. femur
     2. tibia
     3. patella

     1 and 2 only

326. All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except

     the femoral neck

327. Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the

     parietoacantral (Waters method) projection

328. Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone?

     1. posterior clinoid processes
     2. dorsum sella
     3. posterior arch of C1

     1 and 2 only

329. What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2-37?

     pisiform

330. What is the structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2-37?

     radial styloid

331. In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

     15 degrees caudad to C4

332. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

     Flexion and extension laterals

333. If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head

     15 degrees toward the side being examined

334. Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?

     1. obesity
     2. smoking
     3. stress

     1,2, and 3

335. What is the degree of difference between the baseline numbered 2 and 3 in Figure 2-38 and used for various projections of the skull?

     7 degrees

336. Referring to Figure 2-38, which of the following positions requires that baseline number 3 be parallel to the IR?

     SMV

337. Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

     1. Bell-Thompson scale
     2. Bucky tray
     3. Cannula

     1 and 2 only

338. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?

     1. intervertebral foramina
     2. apophyseal joints
     3. intervertebral joints

     2 and 3 only

339. In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

     3/4 inch distal to the nasion

340. To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should

     1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure
     2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 
     3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105*F) to aid in retention

     1 and 2 only

341. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

     RPO

342. Structures involved in blowout fractures include the

     1. orbital floor
     2. inferior rectus muscle
     3. zygoma

     1 and 2 only

343. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate

     1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s)
     2. air in the pleural cavity
     3. foreign body

     1,2, and 3

344. Shoulder arthrography is performed to

     1. evaluate humeral luxation
     2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear
     3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

     2 and 3 only

345. Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulnar?

     Lateral oblique

346. The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is

     gender

347. Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?

     jugular notch

348. For the AP projection of the scapula, the

     1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
     2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
     3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

     1,2, and 3

349. The innominate bone is located in the

     pelvis

350. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

     in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR

351. Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

     sphenoidal

352. Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when

     the patient is in the recumbent position

353. Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

     erect

354. What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

     Axial plantodorsal projection

355. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on

     1. the respiratory phase
     2. body habitus
     3. patient position

     1,2, and 3

356. With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

     10 to 15 degrees caudal

357. The structure labeled number 6 in Figure 2-39 is the

     brachiocephalic artery

358. The structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2-39 is the

     left vertebral artery

359. In the lateral projection of the foot, the

     1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
     2. metatarsals are superimposed
     3. talofibular joint should be visualized

     1 and 2 only

361. Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

     1. uterine tubal patency
     2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
     3. uterine position

     1,2, and 3

362. The number 2 in Figure 2-40 represents which of the following structures?

     Inferior articular process

363. To demonstrate the mandibular body on the PA position, the

     CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.

364. Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

     1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities
     2. A fiberoptic endoscope
     3. Polyethylene catheters

     1,2, and 3

365. All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except

     radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

366. The act of expiration will cause the

     1. diaphragm to move inferiorly
     2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly
     3. diaphragm to move superiorly

     2 and 3 only

367. A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?1. radial head
     2. capitulum
     3. coronoid process

     1 and 2 only

368. Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

     1. the heads of the first row of phalanges
     2. the cuboid
     3. the cuneiforms

     2 and 3 only

369. Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?

     1. ligament tears can be demonstrated
     2. sterile technique is observed
     3. MRI can follow x-ray

     1,2, and 3

370. What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2 -41?

     AP, external rotation

371. The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2-41 is the

     coracoid process

372. The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2-41 is the

     glenohumeral joint

373. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

     left sacroiliac joint

374. The relationship between the ends of fractures long bones is referred to as

     appositon

375. A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

     to the level of the laryngeal prominence

Which of the following articulations participate in formation of ankle mortise?

Which of the following projections of the ankle best demonstrate the mortise?

Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint?

Which of the following positions of the ankle best demonstrates the distal tibiofibular articulation?