Does anyone have examples of producing widgets or dashboard utilizing SDK ? I know there is a way to import packages into dashboards. Show
Can you use the SDK to modify the look and feel of the cockpit, similar to what "CoreSuite" has done by adding "twitter" graphics and widgets, etc. Please post code examples, email or point me in the right direction. I can see this is going to be very powerful and versatile, just the pack of punch that the "core" product needs. Regards, Eli Which window allows you to control if the Row Type column is visible in a Sales Order? Get answer to your question and much more A user can access all three types of business partner master data from one menu item(T/F)TrueIn SAP Business One, a company is represented as a database (T/F) Get answer to your question and much more Items and customers are types of configuration data (T/F) Get answer to your question and much more What type of information is available in the SAP Partner Edge portal?a. Links to educational resourcesb. Marketing, Sales and Supportc. Partnering with SAPd. Solutions and Solution Developmente. All of the above What does a folder icon in the Modules menu indicate? Get answer to your question and much more What does a Workbench widget contain? Get answer to your question and much more Which database option for SAP Business One allows you to leverage the power of in-memory computing to perform sophisticated calculations and provide real-timeanalytics? Get answer to your question and much more Recommended textbook solutions
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Terms in this set (353)All marketing documents have tabs for Contents, Logistics, Accounting, and Attachments (T/F) True What is an easy way to assign a standard role based cockpit to a user? a. Use the Form Settings window to choose the Authorization Group b. Assign an Authorization Group to a User in the Users-Setup Window c. Select the Authorization Group in the Widget Gallery b. Assign an Authorization Group to a User in the Users-Setup Window What key can you press for Online Help? a. F3 b. F1 SAP Business One can run in the cloud or on premise (T/F) True What is the Relationship Map? a. Tool to link business objects to create a query b. Graphical display of related documents c. Dashboard for viewing details for a business partner b. Graphical display of related documents A superuser is limited by license type and authorizations assigned (T/F) False Which cockpit widget type tracks progress towards objectives with color coding and trend arrows? a. Business Object Count b. Key Performance Indicator What are some advantages of saving a document as a draft? a. Only draft documents can contain alternative item rows b. Drafts can be used as templates c. Draft documents have additional link arrows not found in regular documents d. Drafts allow you save a partially created document for correcting later b. Drafts can be used as templates d. Drafts allow you save a partially created document for correcting later Which window allows you to control if the Row Type column is visible in a Sales Order? a. Layout Designer b. Form Settings A user can access all three types of business partner master data from one menu item (T/F) True In SAP Business One, a company is represented as a database (T/F) True Items and customers are types of configuration data (T/F) False What type of information is available in the SAP PartnerEdge portal? a. Links to educational resources e. All of the above What does a folder icon in the Modules menu indicate? a. Submenu a. Submenu What does a Workbench widget contain? a. List of a user's most recent transactions b. Icons for common transactions for a business process role b. Icons for common transactions for a business process role Which database option for SAP Business One allows you to leverage the power of in-memory computing to perform sophisticated calculations and provide real-time analytics? a. SAP HANA a. SAP HANA Purchasing Process Steps in Order: 1. Purchase Order 1. Purchase
Order What are the key types of master data used in purchasing? a. Vendor a. Vendor What is the effect of a copying a purchase order to a goods receipt PO? There are 2 correct answers. a. Available Quantity increases b. Inventory increases Which purchasing document increases both ordered and available quantities? a. Purchase Order a. Purchase Order If a vendor substitutes one item but delivers the five other items you ordered, how many goods receipt PO documents are needed? a. Six c. One When you use Copy To you CANNOT delete items that are copied into the target document (T/F) False In which situation should you select the Without Qty Posting Checkbox in an A/P Credit Memo? a. When a vendor gives you a credit for a missed discount b. When a vendor credits you for damaged items a. When a vendor gives you a credit for a missed discount A purchase order automatically changes status to Closed when all rows are fully received (T/F) True An A/P Credit Memo can fully or partially reverse an A/P invoice (T/F) True Which document is used to return items after you have entered an A/P invoice? a. Goods Return b. A/P credit memo A canceled purchase order appears on the Purchase Analysis report (T/F) False You can add more items or quantities to a Goods Receipt PO after saving (T/F) False You can use Copy From to copy multiple Purchase Orders into one Goods Receipt PO (T/F) True If a vendor delivers items from two purchase orders at once, you can open a new Goods Receipt PO and choose Copy From to receive all the items (T/F) True How does the Goods Return Request simplify the process of returning items? a. Handles returns at any point in the purchasing process b. Creates a journal entry automatically upon saving c. A/P credit memos are never needed d. No need to know if the goods receipt PO has been invoiced a. Handles returns at any point in the purchasing process d. No need to know if the goods receipt PO has been invoiced Multiple price lists can be assigned to a customer, so a user must choose one when creating the sales order (T/F) False Items can represent either goods or services in sales documents (T/F) True Which sales document is a request for payment and records the revenue in the profit-and-loss statement? a. Delivery c. A/R Invoice Place the steps of the sales process in the correct order: -AR Invoice 1. Sales Quotation Every sales document must have a business partner assigned. (T/F) True Which sales document indicates that goods have been shipped? a. Delivery a. Delivery Price lists can be assigned as defaults in which 2 areas? There are 2 correct answers. a. Customer Groups b. Document settings for the sales order c. Payment methods d. Payment terms a. Customer Groups A customer can only have one bill-to address (T/F) False Leads can be converted to either vendors or customers (T/F) False A customer can belong to only one customer group (T/F) True Default settings for Payment Terms can be set at the company level (T/F) True Business Partner master data records for leads, vendors and customers share a common structure (T/F) True Which 2 documents allow you to enter a lead as the main business partner? There are 2 correct answers. a. Purchase Quotation b. Sales Order A sales opportunity represents a single task, phone call or meeting (T/F) False What allows you to document all types of contacts with customers? a. Activities a. Activities A user can view the calendar in monthly, weekly or daily views (T/F) True Campaigns can generate only emails, not activities False What sales document describes an offer for products at a particular price available for a finite period? a. Activity d. Sales Quotation Activities can be created and managed in the business partner master (T/F) True What is a target group? a. Opportunities created for new customers or leads b. Products you plan to market in a sales opportunity c. Distribution list of business partners for a campaign c. Distribution list of business partners for a campaign A user can create activities by double-clicking on a time in the calendar (T/F) True What allows you to manage the sales cycle for a potential deal with a customer or lead? a. Campaign c. Opportunity The availability check window appears when a sales order row quantity exceeds available quantity on the delivery date (T/F)
True Advanced Availability-to-Promise is an option on both HANA and MS SQL databases (T/F) False In Advanced ATP, which delivery strategy does the default checking rule use? a. Complete Delivery c. Delivery Proposal
Where can you assign Advanced ATP checking rules? a. Customer Master b. Item Master Item availability is calculated by this formula: In Stock - Committed + Ordered (T/F) True Which availability check option creates delivery schedule detail lines that allow delivery rescheduling? a. Standard availability check b. Advanced ATP Which document rows appear in the Open drawer of the Pick Pack and Production Manager? a. Items not yet picked a. Items not yet picked Which item quantities are reduced when a sales order is delivered? There are 2 correct answers. a. Available quantity c. In stock quantity What does Committed Quantity represent? a. Quantities reserved for customers or internal use b. Quantities on a purchase order a. Quantities reserved for customers or internal use Which tool would you use to create batch of A/R invoices from existing deliveries? a. Pick Pack and Production Manager b. Document Generation Wizard What are the 3 effects of canceling a marketing
document? a. Base documents re-open and can be used again b. A cancellation document of the same type is created with a reversal posting c. The original document's status changes to Cancelled d. The original document is deleted from the database a. Base documents re-open and can be used again b. A cancellation document of the same type is created with a reversal posting c. The original document's status changes to Cancelled When you save a Return Request, it posts a credit to the customer account (T/F) False An A/R credit memo always has to reference an A/R invoice (T/F) False The default setting in SAP Business One is to automatically reopen a sales order without user confirmation (T/F) False Which two documents can you copy to a Return Request? a. Delivery a. Delivery When a Return document is entered in a perpetual inventory system, which account is credited? a. Cost account a. Cost account Which are the two main documents used to credit customers for issues in the sales process? a. A/R Credit Memo a. A/R Credit Memo If a customer returns items after an invoice has been created, which document do you use to process the returned item and refund the customer? a. Return b. A/R Credit Memo You can do either a partial or full credit on an A/R invoice (T/F) True You can add negative rows to both deliveries and A/R invoices (T/F) True
What are two actions will always give a monetary credit to a customer without an inventory impact? a. Create a "service-type" credit memo b. Use a negative row on an A/R invoice c. Create a credit memo without reference to an A/R invoice d. Select the "Without Qty" checkbox on a credit memo a. Create a "service-type" credit memo d. Select the "Without Qty" checkbox on a credit memo Which configuration object allows you to set default values for fields in new items? a. Item type b. Item group What does the formula "In-stock Quantity + Ordered Quantity - Committed Quantity" calculate for an item? a. Pick Quantity c. Available Quantity If your company discontinues an item, how can you ensure the item is NOT used in a sales order? a. Mark the item as inactive a. Mark the item as inactive What tab on an item master provides up to 64 possible options to classify items for reporting and analysis? a. Properties a. Properties Which tab on the item master data record tracks committed and ordered quantities? a. Purchasing Data tab b. Inventory Data tab Which 2 item categories would you assign to an item that is produced in-house and sold to customers? a. Inventory Item a. Inventory Item In SAP Business One items are represented by master data records (T/F) True In the item master, which unit of measure type can have only one unit of measure assigned? a. Inventory unit a. Inventory unit An item master record can have only one unit of measure group assigned (T/F) True Item prices can be based on units of measure (T/F) True You can have different inventory units of measure for the same item in different warehouses (T/F) False Units of measure are defined at the _____________ level. a. Company a. Company An item can have only one barcode assigned (T/F) False What does the definition of a unit of measure group contain? a. List of units of measure b. The relationship between the units in the group c. Dimensions for each unit in the group d. Barcodes for each unit in the group a. List of units of measure b. The relationship between the units in the group If you are receiving or issuing items from a bin managed warehouse, which documents require a bin location? a. All documents that have inventory movements b. All sales, purchasing and inventory documents c. Only goods receipts, goods issues and inventory transfers a. All documents that have inventory movements Which of these documents is an inventory document? a. Goods Receipt a. Goods Receipt Which document rows have warehouses specified? a. Inventory document rows b. All marketing document rows c. All item-type marketing document rows a. Inventory document rows c. All item-type marketing document rows A business partner can be entered on all inventory documents (T/F) False Customers order items from you but you do not store them physically. Instead, your vendor ships the ordered items directly to the customers. What warehouse setting do you use? a. Drop Ship a. Drop Ship If you are running perpetual inventory, each goods movement creates a journal entry (T/F) True When an inventory transfer request is open, which is the inventory status of the item quantity requested in the issuing warehouse? a. Committed a. Committed Which report compares inventory balance accounts to a logistics view of inventory? a. Inventory Audit Report a. Inventory Audit Report Which inventory valuation method calculates item cost by dividing total inventory value by on-hand quantity? a. Standard Cost b. Moving Average Which option for inventory valuation automatically posts journal entries for stock movements? a. Perpetual inventory a. Perpetual inventory Where can you set a standard cost for an item? a. In the Inventory Revaluation transaction a. In the Inventory Revaluation transaction Which valuation method uses layers to track the costs of each receipt transaction for an item? a. Standard Cost c. FIFO In which valuation method does the item cost remain the same regardless of purchase price? a. FIFO b. Standard Cost You have set up an item to be managed by serial numbers on every transaction. When must a serial number be assigned? a. On sales quotations and purchase quotations b. When the item is returned from a customer c. When the item is issued from a warehouse d. The first point the item is received into inventory b. When the item is returned from a customer c. When the item is issued from a warehouse d. The first point the item is received into inventory What allows you to track a quantity of an item that have characteristics, such as expiration date in common? a. Serial Numbers b. Batches Which method do you use to track a high value object (like a computer) through production, sales and service transactions? a. Batches b. Serial Numbers You have set up an item to be managed by batches on release only. Which 2 of the following transactions will require a batch number to be entered for this item? a. Delivery a. Delivery If you set a batch-managed item to be managed on every transaction, you must assign a batch in a sales order (T/F) False Where is the management method set for a serial numbered item? a. In the item master a. In the item master Price lists are assigned to vendors as well as customers (T/F) True Where can you see the price list assigned to a sales order? a. On the Logistics tab of the sales order b. In the Price Source field on the item row c. In the Form Settings window for the document c. In the Form Settings window for the document Which type of price can allow you to define a discount based on item properties or manufacturers? a. Special Prices for Business Partners b. Discount Group Once a price list is assigned to a document, the price list CANNOT be changed (T/F) False A company database can contain separate price lists for gross pricing and net pricing (T/F) True Place the types of prices in the order that the system looks for them: -Period and
Volume Discounts 1. Specific Blanket Agreements Every item is automatically linked to every price list (T/F) True Which two fields are used to calculate a marketing document row's total price? a. Tax Code b. Discount % field Which type of pricing will apply to the Discount % field but will never apply to the Unit Price field? a. Period and Volume Discounts c. Discount Groups A base price list and factor can be assigned to a specific item price in a pricelist (T/F) True Once a price list price is manually changed, the price will no longer automatically update (T/F) True A price list can contain only two currencies (T/F) False You are limited to 10 price lists in a company (T/F) False Which tool is limited to changing existing discounts based on units of measure and disallows the creation of new UOM discounts? a. Prices Update wizard, UoM Reduce By option b. Copy UoM Reduce by % in the Price List window a. Prices Update wizard, UoM Reduce By option The Last Purchase Price List can be based on another price list (T/F) False You can set validity dates for a price list (T/F) True Prices changed by the Item Prices option in the Prices Update wizard are marked as Manual (T/F) True What does the Convert To option in the Prices Update wizard allow you to do? a. Update item prices using mathematical operations b. Adjust unit of measure prices by changing the Reduce By % field c. Change the base price list and factor for multiple price lists d. Change the currency for prices in price lists d. Change the currency for prices in price lists What are the effects if Price List B is based on Price List A with a factor of 2? a. Prices on Price List B are double prices on Price List A b. Prices on Price List B will change when prices on Price List A are changed c. Prices on Price List B CANNOT be manually changed d. Prices on Price List B are half the price of prices on Price List A a. Prices on Price List B are double prices on Price List A b. Prices on Price List B will change when prices on Price List A are changed If an inactive price list is assigned to a document, the row prices will be zero (T/F) True The Reduce By % field allows you to set a discount or surcharge for a unit price (T/F) True What does the authorization group field in a price list control? a. Which business partners can be assigned to that price list b. Whether a user can make changes to the price list c. If the price list can be assigned to vendors or customers b. Whether a user can make changes to the price list You can set an item as excluded from all Discount Groups (T/F) True You can set up one Discount Group for two individual customers from different customer groups (T/F) False The system automatically adds new items to applicable Discount Groups based on item groups (T/F) True Which price does a period and volume discount override? a. Discount Group price b. Price list price Place the steps for creating a period and volume discount in the correct order. -enter volume per unit discount -set up a validity period -open the pricelist in the Period and Volume window -define volume discount -select an item and price -open the pricelist in the Period and Volume window -select an item and price -set up a validity period -define volume discount -enter volume per unit discount A variable discount exists in a Discount Group for an item. The Paid Quantity is set to 2. The Free Quantity is set to 1. What is the minimum quantity on a row that will trigger the discount? a. 1 b. 3 In which 2 places can you set an effective discount rule? a. Business Partner Master Data a. Business Partner Master Data For a customer's special price to apply in a document, it must be based on the pricelist used by the document (T/F) False Users cannot create inventory transactions while another user is setting up bin location codes (T/F) False What is a Receiving Bin Location? a. A bin location that can only receive inventory but cannot issue any inventory b. A system bin location that is used for transaction when no other bin locations are defined c. Any bin location that is marked as such and is used as an intermediate bin location d. Any bin location that is used for an inbound transaction c. Any bin location that is marked as such and is used as an intermediate bin location What does the bin location code composed from? a. A warehouse code and warehouse sublevel codes b. A warehouse sublevel codes and the exact location in the warehouse sublevel c. The warehouse code and the exact attribute of the bin location a. A warehouse code and warehouse sublevel codes What can you do directly from the Bin Location Content List report? a. Set a bin location as default a. Set a bin
location as default Every inventory document that involves a bin location managed warehouse requires allocation to specific bin locations (T/F) True Two different bin locations in different warehouses may have the same code (T/F) False What types of master data can the production bill of materials contain? a. Items and Employees c. Items and Resources What is a resource unit of measure? a. The physical dimensions of an asset resource b. The unit in which the resource is measured in c. The number of hours capacity of a labor resource d. The time it takes for a resource machine to manufacture one unit b. The unit in which the resource is measured in You added a production order but you are not able to issue the components for production. What can be the reason? a. The due date of the production order has not arrived yet. b. The production order was not released yet c. The issue method of the components is set to backflush d. A pick list was not created for the production order b. The production order was not released yet c. The issue method of the components is set to backflush What is the Production Order based on? a. An Issue from Production d. A bill of Materials Place the following steps of the production process in the right order: -release to shop floor 1. create production order Which capacity increases when adding a production order for a resource? a.
Single run capacity b. Committed capacity The parent item of a sales bill of materials has to be a sales item (T/F) True The issue method for an item is set to backflush. How does this definition affect the production process? a. The produced item enters the inventory automatically when production is completed b. The component items are issued from inventory automatically when production is completed c. The component item is automatically reserved for production when production starts The component items are issued from inventory automatically when production is completed A Production Bill of Materials can only have one level (T/F) False A resource can be managed in inventory much like an item (T/F) False In a production order with the Start date Forwards routing date calculation, the resource allocation can affect the document's due date (T/F) True Which field in the item master controls whether production orders or purchase orders are recommended by MRP? a. Planning Method c. Procurement Method MRP results are calculated by considering the initial inventory plus expected supply minus demand (T/F) True Purchase requests can be considered as expected supply in MRP runs (T/F) True Which configuration setting helps companies avoid overstocking when running MRP? a. Management Method: On Every Transaction c. Consume Forecast Which types of documents can be considered as both demand and supply in MRP?
a. Production Orders a. Production Orders Which window allows you to generate documents from an MRP recommendation? a. MRP Recommendations b. Order Recommendations MRP scenarios can be used for multiple MRP runs (T/F) True Which of these can be considered as demand by MRP? a. Purchase Blanket Agreement b. A/R Reserve Invoice What 2 settings do you need to make on the item master to automatically create a warranty contract when an item is delivered to a customer? a. Assign a contract template a. Assign a contract template The deadline for service resolution is affected by coverage definition in a service contract (T/F) True Place the process steps for customer service in the correct order: -Service Response 1. Create Service Call Which 2 settings do you need to make on the Inventory tab of General Settings to automatically generate an equipment card when you deliver an item? a. Choose the option to Issue Primarily by Serial and Batch Numbers b. Set serial numbers to be unique within a company database c. Select the checkbox for automatically creating equipment cards d. Set the default management method to "On Every Transaction" b. Set serial numbers to be unique within a company database c. Select the checkbox for automatically creating equipment cards Which 2 areas in a service contract determine the deadlines in a service call for a technician to contact the customer? a. Service Type c. Response Time Equipment cards can be created manually as well as automatically (T/F) True Which document allows you to record a customer issue and track the service team's progress in resolving the issue? a. Service Call a. Service Call What is the purpose of an equipment card? a. Documenting if a service level agreement has been met b. Recording service history for a serial numbered item c. Listing which services are covered if a serial numbered item is damaged d. Scheduling technician visits b. Recording service history for a serial numbered item Automatically created contracts are always based on a Customer Contract Template (T/F) False The Balance Sheet Accounts reflect the monitory value of the company (T/F) True In which drawer in the chart of accounts can we find the account payables? a. Turnover c. Liabilities The accountant wants to define a set of default accounts according to business partner groups. Therefore, the company should use the advanced G/L account determination window (T/F) True What characterizes the balance sheet accounts? a. They are typically located in the lower drawers of the chart of accounts b. They are typically located in the top 3 drawers of the chart of account c. They appear in the trial balance report d. They appear in the profit and loss report b. They are typically located in the top 3 drawers of the chart of account c. They appear in the trial balance report Once you choose to use the traditional default G/L account determination you cannot switch to the Advanced G/L account determination (T/F) False Any rule you define in the advanced form will have a higher priority than the G/L Account Determination window (T/F) True Which of these statements regarding the chart of accounts are true? a. The drawer names cannot be changed b. Active accounts can be defined in level 1 c. The order of accounts in financial reports is taken from the chart of accounts structure d. Accounts that appear in green are defaults defined in the G/L Account determination window c. The order of accounts in financial reports is taken from the chart of accounts structure d. Accounts that appear in green are defaults defined in the G/L Account determination window Which of the following definitions are available in the Advanced G/L account determination method? There are 3 correct answers. a. A combination of different default accounts b. Default account for a service type invoice c. Default account per user defined field d. Default account per ship-to address e. Default accounts in the item master data a. A combination of different default accounts c. Default account per user defined field d. Default account per ship-to address The bookkeeping balance of the balance sheet account has to be cleared every year (T/F) False What is a system currency? a. The currency in which the company is legally required to keep its books b. A currency used only when recording transactions for foreign business partners c. An additional currency in which all transactions are recorded c. An additional currency in which all transactions are recorded
Which scenario may trigger an exchange rate transaction? a. An Invoice and payment to a foreign currency vendor posted in the same posting date b. An invoice in foreign currency price to a local customer c. An invoice to a foreign currency customer d. A payment to a foreign currency vendor d. A payment to a foreign currency vendor Foreign currency transactions are recorded simultaneously in the local currency (T/F) True You cannot change the Local or the System Currency once you have started posting transactions in the company (T/F) True Your local currency is Euro. You have several customers located in the United States and their currency is USD. When you create marketing documents for these customers, you would like the system to automatically enter a price in USD. How can you define this in the system? a. Set the system currency to USD and update the daily exchange rate b. In the price list linked to these customers, include prices in USD in the additional currency column c. Define the currency of the US business partners as All Currencies b. In the price list linked to these customers, include prices in USD in the additional currency column In which currency is the exchange rate differences transaction posted? a. Local currency b. Foreign currency c. System currency d. BP currency a. Local currency The calculation of the exchange rate in an A/P Invoice is based on the document due date (T/F) False One journal voucher may contain several journal entries (T/F) True The debit and credit values of the posting template are entered as percentage (T/F) True An accountant would like to save a draft when entering a large journal entry, in order to avoid data loss. What do you recommend? a. Use a posting template. b. In the journal entry, choose the option to save as draft. c. Create a journal voucher. c. Create a journal voucher In the journal voucher window you can post selected entries related to one voucher (T/F) False A journal voucher has to be balanced (T/F) False When viewing the last Journal Entry record, you see the value JE in the Origin field. What does JE stand for? a. Journal entry template b. Journal voucher source c. Automatic journal entry d. Manual journal entry d. Manual journal entry How can you choose a business partner in a manual journal entry row? a. Press
TAB b. Press CTRL+TAB You try to cancel an existing journal entry but the cancellation option is not available. What could be the reason? a. The journal entry was already cancelled. b. The journal entry was created from a journal voucher. c. The posting date of the journal entry is in the past. d. The journal entry was created automatically from a marketing document. a. The journal entry was already cancelled. d. The journal entry was created automatically from a marketing document. Which of the following reports can be set to appear automatically immediately after
logging in to the system? a. Recurring Postings a. Recurring Postings The posting template generates journal entries automatically according to a pre-defined interval (T/F) False The recurring postings function is designed for fixed amount journal entries created on a regular basis (T/F) True How is a monthly sub-period created in the system? a. During the posting period setup, choose whether to add the sub- period manually or automatically. b. Add a sub-period in the posting period creation window, each month before the end of the current month. c. When you choose the monthly sub-period in the posting period creation window, the system automatically adds all sub-periods. c. When you choose the monthly sub-period in the posting period creation window, the system automatically adds all sub-periods. In the journal voucher window you can post selected entries related to one voucher False The posting dates of different periods may overlap (T/F) False How does SAP Business One determine which sub-period a transaction belongs to? a. From the transaction posting date a. From the transaction posting date For each period, you have to define new values in the G/L Account Determination window (T/F) False When creating posting periods, the beginning of the fiscal year can only be the first day of a month (T/F) True What would be an advantage of defining a monthly sub-period? a. Preventing users from posting transactions to a previous
month. a. Preventing users from posting transactions to a previous month. Which two of these transactions trigger a system internal reconciliation? a. An A/R invoice based on a sales order b. A payment for a vendor based on an A/P Invoice Once you reverse a reconciliation, all the related postings are reversed as well (T/F) False manual reconciliation is a type of user reconciliation (T/F)
True Internal reconciliation refers to the matching and clearing of open credit items to open debit items within an account (T/F) True You added an Incoming payment but forgot to choose the invoice in the payment and a reconciliation was not made. What is the best practice to solve this issue? a. Cancel the payment and create a new one based on the invoice. Then reconciliation will occur automatically. b. Reopen the incoming payment and uncheck the Payment on Account box then choose the invoice to trigger reconciliation. c. Perform a reconciliation using the Business Partner Internal Reconciliation window. c. Perform a reconciliation using the Business Partner Internal Reconciliation window. You need to perform internal reconciliation manually after running the Payment Wizard (T/F) False Partial reconciliation can be only done manually False You added an Incoming Payment for partial payment of an A/R invoice. How does this affect reconciliation? a. The customer debt is reconciled partially for the amount paid. b. No reconciliation occurs because a partial payment can only be reconciled manually. c. The customer debt is not reconciled yet. Reconciliation occurs only when the customer pays in full. a. The customer debt is reconciled partially for the amount paid. It is possible to reconcile transactions of two business partners with each other (T/F) True When an invoice is reconciled with a payment, the debit side of the business partner is reconciled with the credit side (T/F) True As the accountant in your company, you spend a lot of time reconciling open customer debts and payments. Which 2 options can help you make the procedure shorter? a. Manual reconciliation d. Semi automatic reconciliation What can be a result of creating an internal reconciliation? a. Remove an A/P Invoice from the vendor aging report b. Decrease the debit amount of the total balance of a customer c. Remove an A/R Invoice from the open invoices list that appear when opening a new Incoming Payment d. Copy a transaction from a business partner to an account a. Remove an A/P Invoice from the vendor aging report c. Remove an A/R Invoice from the open invoices list that appear when opening a new Incoming Payment An internal reconciliation is performed in the local currency if the business partner account currency is set to All Currencies (T/F) True In the incoming payment, you see an asterisk in one of the invoice rows. What does the asterisk indicate? a. The invoice is due a. The invoice is due Which tool would you use to create outgoing and incoming payments in a batch? a.Document Generation Wizard d. Payment Wizard The journal entry for an outgoing payment typically involves a vendor and a bank account (T/F) True Order the process steps you take when the customer uses checks for payments. -Incoming Payment 1. Invoice When adding an incoming payment using bank transfer as payment means, the house bank is debited (T/F) True After you created a deposit with multiple checks, it is possible to cancel one of the checks (T/F) True Defining a payment method for a business partner is a pre-requisite for running the Payment Wizard (T/F) True It is possible to split the amount due among several means of payment (T/F) True An incoming payment typically debits the customer account False What are 3 possible outcomes of the payment wizard run? a. Deposits b. Bank file Which 2 payment means will typically involve a clearing (suspense) account in the incoming payment transaction? a. credit card a.
credit card The Payment Wizard does NOT consolidate payments by business partners (T/F) False What would be the consequence of choosing the option Payment on Account in the Outgoing Payments window? a. The payment will close the invoice without creating a journal entry b. The open invoice will not be reconciled with the payment c. The payment will be added as a draft payment d. The payment will be posted to an account and not a business partner b. The open invoice will not be reconciled with the payment Another name for bank reconciliation is external reconciliation (T/F) True What is the result of all types of bank reconciliation? a. The payment is reconciled with the invoice. b. The bank statement row is reconciled with the bank record in the accounting ledger. c. The debit side of the bank account is reconciled with the credit side of the account. b. The bank statement row is reconciled with the bank record in the accounting ledger. Bank reconciliation and internal reconciliation are two different processes in SAP Business One (T/F) True While reviewing the bank statement, you notice that a certain bank transfer amount is slightly different than the amount recorded in the ledger, due to rounding. How can you reconcile this record externally? a. Post a balancing transaction a. Post a balancing transaction The main purpose of bank reconciliation is to ensure all transactions performed in the bank are recorded in the accounting ledger (T/F) True A bank statement can be imported automatically (T/F) True A bank reconciliation is performed before receiving the bank statement (T/F) False The Trial Balance report is a draft of the Balance Sheet report (T/F) False The Trial Balance report displays only balance sheet accounts False In the profit and loss statement you can display balances of business partners (T/F) False Total assets = total liabilities + equity (T/F) True The Balance Sheet presents the company's value True Which 2 reports display the balance of the cost of sales accounts? a. Balance Sheet c. Profit and Loss Statement Which 2 types of balances can you view in the Profit and Loss Statement? a. The assets balance b. The company's expenses balance In which report can you easily see open transactions for all customers? a. Profit and Loss d. Aging report The Cash Flow report displays only cash accounts (T/F) False In the Cash Flow report, what is a security level? a. The amount of time until the document due date c. The level of certainty that the transaction will turn into cash Where can you see a consolidated balance of a business partner that is both a customer and a vendor? a. In the General ledger d. In the Aging report The Cash Flow report forecasts changes in cash holding accounts (T/F) True Which feature in SAP Business One allows you to send customer reminder letters regarding debts? a. Doubtful Debts b. Dunning Wizard The Cash Flow report can only display transactions recorded in the accounting ledger (T/F) False In the aging report, how does the system calculate the age of an open invoice? a. By applying the payment terms of the business partner to the invoice date. b. By counting the days from today until the invoice due date. c. According to the difference in days between the date of the invoice and aging date. c. According to the difference in days between the date of the invoice and aging date. Depreciation is posted as a company's expense (T/F) True What is a virtual fixed asset? a. A template for reproducing a batch of identical fixed assets. b. An asset that has no value but has a quantity balance in inventory. c. A fixed asset that exists in inventory after retirement. d. A fixed asset that ts registered in the books of another subsidiary. a. A template for reproducing a batch of identical fixed assets. An asset can be associated with several asset classes (T/F) False Place the following steps of an asset's life cycle in order: -Retirement 1. Asset Master Data definition A Capitalization document can be created automatically by an A/R Invoice (T/F) False Asset net book value = historical item cost - accumulated depreciation (T/F) True A depreciation run creates journal entries True Creating a virtual fixed asset is available only if you use numbering series for the asset master data (T/F) True A Retirement document can be created by an A/P invoice (T/F) False You would like to distribute a rent expense to different departments. What kind of distribution rule would you use? a. Indirect a. Indirect What is cost center Z? a. A cost center with no costs or expenses allocated. b. A cost center that collects unassigned costs and revenues. c. The first cost center created manually. b. A cost center that collects unassigned costs and revenues. What does the system do once you create a cost center? a. Allocates all expenses or revenues relevant to this cost center. b. Creates a distribution rule with the same name as the cost center. c. Creates an account in the chart of accounts with the same name. b. Creates a distribution rule with the same name as the cost center. You can link distribution rules to all account types (T/F) False The Profit and Loss report can be issued per dimension (T/F) True You want to analyze the travel expenses of your company by the number of employees in each department and also by employees' location. How can you set this up in the system? a. Define G/L expense accounts for each analysis. c. Define a dimension for each analysis.
Order the AIP phases correctly. -Project Preparation 1. Project Preparation According to the AIP methodology, go-live occurs at the end of the Go-Live and Support phase (T/F) False You can add your own project plan and tasks to the Implementation Center (T/F) True In which phase are the following activities performed: Handover from sales Kick-off meeting Delivery of software a. Project Preparation a. Project Preparation Which activity takes place in the AIP Business Blueprint phase? a. Configuration of customer's system c. Mapping of customer's processes to SAP Business One Your company provides implementation services to other partners who sell the solution. Which embedded project plan shows you the tasks for the last 3 phases of an implementation project? a. Narrowed a. Narrowed According to the AIP methodology, in which phase is the customer's system configured? a. Final Preparation b. Project Realization All users in the service department need to have the same set of fields in the matrix area of documents. What are two ways to set this up?There are 2 correct answers. a. Define a set of user defaults c. Use a UI configuration template How can you assign common settings, such as a path to a common shared folder, to a group of users? a. User Defaults a. User Defaults It is possible to delete a user account (T/F) True By default a super user has: a. No access to any function b. Full access to every function A user gets an error the first time they login to SAP Business One. What are 2 things you should check? a. Employee master data is linked to user account b. Required authorizations are assigned The code for a user account is case sensitive (T/F) True You can restrict access to the semantic layer views on an individual basis(T/F) True What are two ways to quickly grant general authorizations to several users with the same job? a. Define and assign a common set of user defaults b. Create a UI configuration template and assign the users c. Use an authorization user group d. Copy authorizations from a reference user c. Use an authorization user group d. Copy authorizations from a reference user When would you assign authorizations manually to a user instead of using an authorization user group? a. When the user is a super user b. When the user's role is unique To access SAP Business One functionality, a user needs a __________ in addition to general authorizations. a. Data ownership authorization b. License You can assign multiple authorization user groups to a user (T/F) True You can fine tune the general authorizations for a super user and remove specific authorizations as needed (T/F) False Once data ownership is enabled, a document that has an owner can only be accessed by________________ or ____________________. a. A super user a. A super user Where can you define a user as a member of a team for data ownership purposes? a. Employee master data a. Employee master data Which data ownership strategy can assign the sales employee from the business partner master data as the owner of a sales order? a. Business partner b. Document If data ownership is in use, how can you make documents available to an auditor who has no relationship to the document owner? a. Assign data ownership at the Company level a. Assign data ownership at the Company level What is special about the Purchase Request document for data ownership? a. You cannot specify a header and row owner d. It does not relate to a business partner The relationship "peer" describes a user's relationship to the document owner. What is the user's relationship? a. Is on the same team b. Has the same manager Which data ownership strategy will grant access to a document based on a user's relationship to the owner of the master data? a. Business partner a. Business partner When data ownership is in use, a document can always be accessed by anyone if it has no ___________. a. Owner a. Owner If users are authorized to multiple numbering series you should set one as __________. a. Primary b. Default You can create a numbering series for items and business partners as well as for documents (T/F) True No special general authorization is needed to create documents using a manual numbering series (T/F) False You want to start a new numbering series for sales orders. What must you change in the existing series? a. The last number a. The last number When a new account is created for a regular user, the new user: a. Has access to the default numbering series b. Has no access to any numbering series What are 2 differences between a document series and a master data series? a. A document series can be a cancellation series. b. A master data series cannot have c. The prefix in a document series is not part of the actual number. d. You cannot set a master data series as default for a group of users. a. A document series can be a cancellation series. c. The prefix in a document series is not part of the actual number. If a numbering series has a period indicator, users cannot post documents for the series unless the period indicator matches the current posting period (T/F) True A UI template contains ___________________________. a. Users and user groups a. Users and user groups Using UI edit you can add a new tab to a document (T/F) True Using UI edit, you can set a user-defined field to be invisible in the side window (T/F) False You can only have one set of modified forms in the system (T/F) False An authorized user can modify their own forms (T/F) True Using UI edit, you can move a field from one tab to a different tab. (T/F) True You must use the item number and column syntax to refer to fields in the active window (T/F) False In SAP HANA, field names containing lower-case characters need to be enclosed in double quotes (T/F) True What does System Information show you? a. Maximum length of a field a. Maximum length of a field What is a major difference between the two query tools provided in the SAP Business One client? a. The Query Wizard automatically displays all tables related to a chosen table. b. You cannot sort and group fields using the Query Generator. c. The Query Generator is a single-step interface for building a query. d. Only the Query Wizard inserts the table joins. a. The Query Wizard automatically displays all tables related to a chosen table. c. The Query Generator is a single-step interface for building a query. As a user, what authorization do you need to run a saved query? a. Authorization to the Query Manager c. Authorization to the query category group The main purchase order table is: a. OPQR b. OPOR A user cannot modify an approval template if they are selected as _________________ in the template. a. Originator a. Originator A user adds a sales document that triggers an alert. What happens to the document? a. A draft document is created d. The document is added normally A user adds a sales document that is subject to an approval process. What happens to the document? a. The document is saved with the status "Approved" b. The document is saved as a draft If you choose a combination of a predefined term and a query in an approval template, both have to be fulfilled to trigger the approval process (T/F) False The accountant needs to know whenever any user issues a purchase order that exceeds the annual budget. Would you use an alert or an approval process to implement this? a. Approval Process b. Alert What two conditions must be met to trigger a user-defined alert? a. A document is added to the system b. The alert
frequency is met An alert can prevent a user from issuing a sales order if the customer's credit limit is exceeded. (T/F) False The sales manager wants to review all sales orders before they go out, if the gross profit is below 35%. Would you use an alert or an approval process to implement this? a. Approval Process a. Approval Process How can you ensure that an approval procedure will not be stalled if an approver is absent from work? a. Set the approval terms to "Always" b. Define multiple approvers for a stage What is unique to the query syntax used in an approval procedure? a. Query must use the item and column number syntax b. Query must use the select distinct statement You can use a predefined alert to notify you when an item in stock falls below the minimum inventory level. (T/F) True Which is true about a user-defined field added to the marketing document object? a. The field will be added to every marketing document type b. The field will be added to all new documents created for the object, but not to existing documents c. The field will be added only to the specified marketing document types d. The field will be added to all instances of the object, including documents saved in the database a. The field will be added to every marketing document type d. The field will be added to all instances of the object, including documents saved in the database User-defined fields can be added to the grid section of a form (T/F) True User-defined values added to a document type such as a sales order are not inherited by other document types (T/F) True User-defined fields require a change to the database structure (T/F) True What is the purpose of user-defined values? There are two correct answers: a. To add a list of values to a field a. To add a list of values to a field When you create a user-defined field, to which entities can you link the new field? a. Another user-defined field b. System object How can a user identify if a field contains user-defined values? a. Choose View > System Information b. Choose View > Pickers Display To ensure you keep the original result from a query, you should select the ________________ option in the setup window for user-defined values. a. Refresh Regularly b. Display Saved User-Defined Values A query attached to a row-level field as user-defined values can be triggered by another field on the row or header of the form (T/F) True User-defined fields added to the header of a document can be hidden using the form settings window (T/F) False The unit price and the discount of an item are examples of measures (T/F) True Semantic layer views are analytic models that do not contain any data (T/F) True Which of these is mandatory for a KPI? a. Goal c. Value You can trigger an enterprise search from a pervasive dashboard using __________. a. A cockpit template b. An action The Analytical Portal is an example of an advanced dashboard (T/F) False What is the difference between a pervasive dashboard and an advanced dashboard? a. Partners cannot create advanced dashboards b. An advanced dashboard can contain a pervasive dashboard c. A pervasive dashboard can have multiple pages d. An advanced dashboard can be opened from a pervasive dashboard b. An advanced dashboard can contain a pervasive dashboard d. An advanced dashboard can be opened from a pervasive dashboard A pervasive dashboard is based on which two of these data sources?There are 2 correct answers. a. User-defined query a. User-defined query To ensure support from SAP, what actions must you perform for your new customer? a. Ensure internet connectivity at the customer site for SAP access b. Get the customer to sign a contract for incident billing c. Enter system data for the customer d. Provide the customer with access to PartnerEdge e. Submit an initial system status report a. Ensure internet connectivity at the customer site for SAP access c. Enter system data for the customer e. Submit an initial system status report What are the support troubleshooting steps that a partner is required to perform before submitting an incident? a. Creation of an SAP note b. Upload of the customer's database c. Reproduction of the issue d. Isolation of the issue to SAP Business One e. Search for known issues f. Initial troubleshooting c. Reproduction of the issue d. Isolation of the issue to SAP Business One e. Search for known issues f. Initial troubleshooting When a partner creates an incident with a very high priority, what additional information needs to be submitted to SAP? a. Screenshots of the error message c. The business impact The Support user in SAP Business One enables __________________________ a. A customer to login and create an incident to a partner b. A partner to login and perform maintenance and support c. A customer to login directly to SAP support d. A partner to login and submit enhancement requests to SAP b. A partner to login and perform maintenance and support In addition to proactive monitoring of a customer system, what are other benefits of Remote Support Platform (RSP) for a customer? a. Scheduled database backups a. Scheduled database backups Support from SAP is dependent on a customer having a ______________________. There are 2 correct answers. a. Uploaded System Status Report a. Uploaded System Status Report d. Valid maintenance contract Which of these are partner obligations to comply with SAP's maintenance policy? a. Provide onsite support to customers b. Deliver Level 1, 2 and 3 support directly to customers c. Install and use Remote Support Platform d. Follow SAP's support tools and processes c. Install and use Remote Support Platform d. Follow SAP's support tools and processes In which situation should a partner contact the SAP hotline to report an incident? a. When the customer has a high priority problem b. When there is no internet access If you install a hot fix at a customer, you should upgrade to the next regular patch as soon as available (T/F) True The ____________________ provides access to all support resources and tools from a single interface. a. Support Launchpad a. Support Launchpad When submitting an incident to SAP support, what priority should a partner assign if the problem affects normal business transactions but important transactions can still be executed? a. Very High c. 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Which of the following refers to the key information that describes your customers vendors and leads as well as items that your company buys and sells?Master Data – It refers to the key information that describes your customers, vendors, and leads as well as items that your company buys and sells.
How does SAP Business One calculate the stock available in the warehouse?Step 1: In SAP Business One, click: Web Store > Web Stores. Select the necessary web store and go to the Stock Presentation tab. Step 2: In the Inventory Calculation Method field, you can select which quantity of items should be shown to a customer. This method shows how many units of an item are physically available.
Is used to record transactions that are not automatically initiated from a subledger or from another process within SAP Business One?The purpose of manual journal entries is to record transactions that are not automatically initiated from a sub ledger or from another process within SAP Business One.
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