Mar 9, 2020 Last Updated: Aug 8, 2022 Show
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Explanation: WPA and WPA2 come in two types: personal and enterprise. Personal is used in home and small office networks. Shared key allows three different authentication techniques: (1) WEP, (2) WPA, and (3) 802.11i/WPA2. WEP is an encryption method. More Questions: CCNA 2 v7 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers Please login or Register to submit your answer
Last Updated on October 29, 2020 by Admin Answers Explanation & Hints: WPA and WPA2 come in two types: personal and enterprise. Personal is used in home and small office networks. Shared key allows three different authentication techniques: (1)
WEP, (2) WPA, and (3) 802.11i/WPA2. WEP is an encryption method. CCNA 2 v7 Modules 10 – 13: L2 Security and WLANs Exam Answers1. Which Layer 2 attack will result in legitimate users not getting valid IP addresses?ARP spoofing 2. What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?Disable DTP. 3. Which three Cisco products focus on endpoint security solutions? (Choose three.)IPS Sensor Appliance 4. True or False? In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant.True* 5. Which authentication method stores usernames and passwords in the router and is ideal for small networks?server-based AAA over TACACS+ Explanation: In a small network with a few network devices, AAA authentication can be implemented with the local database and with usernames and passwords stored on the network devices. Authentication using the TACACS+ or RADIUS protocol will require dedicated ACS servers although this authentication solution scales well in a large network. 6. What represents a best practice concerning discovery protocols such as CDP and LLDP on network devices?Enable CDP on edge devices, and enable LLDP on interior devices. Explanation: Both discovery protocols can provide hackers with sensitive network information. They should not be enabled on edge devices, and should be disabled globally or on a per-interface basis if not required. CDP is enabled by default. 7. Which protocol should be used to mitigate the vulnerability of using Telnet to remotely manage network devices?SNMP Explanation: Telnet uses plain text to communicate in a network. The username and password can be captured if the data transmission is intercepted. SSH encrypts data communications between two network devices. TFTP and SCP are used for file transfer over the network. SNMP is used in network management solutions. 8. Which statement describes the behavior of a switch when the MAC address table is full?It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports on the switch. Explanation:When the MAC address table is full, the switch treats the frame as an unknown unicast and begins to flood all incoming traffic to all ports only within the local VLAN. 9. What device is considered a supplicant during the 802.1X authentication process?the router that is serving as the default gateway Explanation: The devices involved in the 802.1X authentication process are as follows: 10. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p10 Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device. SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security Explanation: The default mode for a port security violation is to shut down the port so the switchport port-security violation command is not necessary. The switchport
port-security command must be entered with no additional options to enable port security for the port. 11. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p11 Port security has been configured on the Fa 0/12 interface of switch S1. What action will occur when PC1 is attached to switch S1 with the applied configuration?Frames from PC1 will be forwarded since the switchport port-security violation command is missing. Explanation: Manual configuration of the single allowed MAC address has been entered for port fa0/12. PC1 has a different MAC address and when attached will cause the port to shut down (the default action), a log message to be automatically created, and the violation counter to increment. The default action of shutdown is recommended because the restrict option might fail if an attack is underway. 12. Which type of VLAN-hopping attack may be prevented by designating an unused VLAN as the native VLAN?DHCP spoofing Explanation: Spoofing DTP messages forces a switch into trunking mode as part of a VLAN-hopping attack, but VLAN double tagging works even if trunk ports are disabled. Changing the native VLAN from the default to an unused VLAN reduces the possibility of this type of attack. DHCP spoofing and DHCP starvation exploit vulnerabilities in the DHCP message exchange. 13. A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch with the command ip arp inspection validate src-mac. What is the purpose of this configuration command?It checks the source
MAC address in the Ethernet header against the user-configured ARP ACLs. Explanation: DAI can be configured to check for both
destination or source MAC and IP addresses: 14. Which two commands can be used to enable BPDU guard on a switch? (Choose two.)S1(config)# spanning-tree bpduguard default Explanation: BPDU guard can be enabled on all PortFast-enabled ports by using the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command. Alternatively, BPDU guard can be enabled on a PortFast-enabled port through the use of the spanning-tree bpduguard enable interface configuration command. 15. As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?auto secure MAC addresses Explanation: With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table. 16. Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?authentication Explanation: Beacons are the only management frame that may regularly be broadcast by an AP. Probing, authentication, and association frames are used only during the association (or reassociation) process. 17. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)delivering a broadcast frame Explanation: Two methods can be used by a wireless device to discover and register with an access point: passive mode and active mode. In passive mode, the AP sends a broadcast beacon frame that contains the SSID and other wireless settings. In active mode, the wireless device must be manually configured for the SSID, and then the device broadcasts a probe request. 18. A technician is configuring the channel on a wireless router to either 1, 6, or 11. What is the purpose of adjusting the channel?to
enable different 802.11 standards Explanation: Channels 1, 6, and 11 are selected because they are 5 channels apart. thus minimizing the interference with adjacent channels. A channel frequency can interfere with channels on either side of the main frequency. All wireless devices need to be used on nonadjacent channels. 19. While attending a conference, participants are using laptops for network connectivity. When a guest speaker attempts to connect to the network, the laptop fails to display any available wireless networks. The access point must be operating in which mode?mixed Explanation: Active is a mode used to configure an access point so that clients must know the SSID to connect to the access point. APs and wireless routers can operate in a mixed mode meaning that that multiple wireless standards are supported. Open is an authentication mode for an access point that has no impact on the listing of available wireless networks for a client. When an access point is configured in passive mode, the SSID is broadcast so that the name of wireless network will appear in the listing of available networks for clients. 20. A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building. To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?802.11n Explanation: 802.11ac provides data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and is still backward compatible with 802.11a/b/g/n devices. 802.11g and 802.11n are older standards that cannot reach speeds over 1Gb/s. 802.11ad is a newer standard that can offer theoretical speeds of up to 7 Gb/s. 21. A technician is about to install and configure a wireless network at a small branch office. What is the first security measure the technician should apply immediately upon powering up the wireless router?Enable MAC address filtering on the wireless router. Explanation: The first action a technician should do to secure a new wireless network is to change the default user-name and password of the wireless router. The next action would usually be to configure encryption. Then once the initial group of wireless hosts have connected to the network, MAC address filtering would be enabled and SSID broadcast disabled. This will prevent new unauthorized hosts from finding and connecting to the wireless network. 22. On a Cisco 3504 WLC dashboard, which option provides access to the full menu of features?Access Points Explanation: The Cisco 3504 WLC dashboard displays when a user logs into the WLC. It provides some basic settings and menus that users can quickly access to implement a variety of common configurations. By clicking the Advanced button, the user will access the advanced Summary page and access all the features of the WLC. 23. Which step is required before creating a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC?Create a new SSID. Explanation: Each new WLAN configured on a Cisco 3500 series WLC needs its own VLAN interface. Thus it is required that a new VLAN interface to be created first before a new WLAN can be created. 24. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services. Explanation: Wireless range is determined by the access point antenna and output power, not the frequency band that is used. In this scenario it is stated that all users have wireless NICs that comply with the latest standard, and so all can access the 5 GHz band. Although some users may find it inconvenient to switch to the 5 Ghz band to access streaming services, it is the greater number of channels, not just fewer users, that will improve network performance. 25. A network administrator is configuring a RADIUS server connection on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. The configuration requires a shared secret password. What is the purpose for the shared secret password?It is used by the RADIUS server to authenticate WLAN users. Explanation: The RADIUS protocol uses security features to protect communications between the RADIUS server and clients. A shared secret is the password used between the WLC and the RADIUS server. It is not for end users. 26. Which three parameters would need to be changed if best practices are being implemented for a home wireless AP? (Choose three.)wireless client operating system password Explanation: As soon as an AP is taken out of a box, the default device password, SSID, and security parameters (wireless network password) should be set. The frequency of a wireless antenna can be adjusted, but doing so is not required. The beacon time is not normally configured. The wireless client operating system password is not affected by the configuration of a home wireless network. 27. Which access control component, implementation, or protocol is based upon usernames and passwords?802.1X 28. Which type of wireless network is based on the 802.11 standard and a 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz radio frequency?wireless metropolitan-area network 29. Which two Cisco solutions help prevent DHCP starvation attacks? (Choose two.)DHCP Snooping* Explanation: Cisco
provides solutions to help mitigate Layer 2 attacks including these: 30. What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)Enable trunking manually.* Explanation: Mitigating a VLAN attack can be done by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP), manually setting ports to trunking mode, and by setting the native VLAN of trunk links to VLANs not in use. 31. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p31 What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security. Explanation: The Port Security line simply shows a state of Enabled if the switchport port-security command (with no options) has been entered for a particular switch port. If a port security violation had occurred, a different error message appears such as Secure-shutdown. The maximum number of MAC addresses supported is 50. The Maximum MAC Addresses line is used to show how many MAC addresses can be learned (2 in this case). The Sticky MAC Addresses line shows that only one device has been attached and learned automatically by the switch. This configuration could be used when a port is shared by two cubicle-sharing personnel who bring in separate laptops. 32. A network administrator of a college is configuring the WLAN user authentication process. Wireless users are required to enter username and password credentials that will be verified by a server. Which server would provide such service?AAA Explanation: Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol and server software that provides user-based authentication for an organization. When a WLAN is configured to use a RADIUS server, users will enter username and password credentials that are verified by the RADIUS server before allowing to the WLAN. 33. A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN that consists of 802.11b and 802.11g devices . A new 802.11n/ac dual-band router has been deployed on the network to replace the old 802.11g router. What can the technician do to address the slow wireless speed?Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.* Explanation: Splitting the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band will allow for the 802.11n to use the two bands as two separate wireless networks to help manage the traffic, thus improving wireless performance. 34. The company handbook states that employees cannot have microwave ovens in their offices. Instead, all employees must use the microwave ovens located in the employee cafeteria. What wireless security risk is the company trying to avoid?improperly configured devices Explanation: Denial of service attacks can be the result of improperly configured devices which can disable the WLAN. Accidental interference from devices such as microwave ovens and cordless phones can impact both the security and performance of a WLAN. Man-in-the-middle attacks can allow an attacker to intercept data. Rogue access points can allow unauthorized users to access the wireless network. 35. What is the function provided by CAPWAP protocol in a corporate wireless network?CAPWAP creates a
tunnel on Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports in order to allow a WLC to configure an autonomous access point. Explanation: CAPWAP is an IEEE standard protocol that enables a WLC to manage multiple APs and WLANs. CAPWAP is also responsible for the encapsulation and forwarding of WLAN client traffic between an AP and a WLC. 36. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p36 Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?A syslog message is logged. Explanation: The violation mode can be viewed by issuing the show port-security interface command. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is configured with the violation mode of protect. If there is a violation, interface FastEthernet 0/1 will drop packets with unknown MAC addresses. 37. Match each functional component of AAA with its description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p37 38. What are two protocols that are used by AAA to authenticate users against a central database of usernames and password? (Choose two.)SSH Explanation: By using TACACS+ or RADIUS, AAA can authenticate users from a database of usernames and passwords stored centrally on a server such as a Cisco ACS server. 39. What is the result of a DHCP starvation attack?The attacker provides incorrect DNS and default gateway information to clients. Explanation: DCHP starvation attacks are launched by an attacker with the intent to create a DoS for DHCP clients. To accomplish this goal, the attacker uses a tool that sends many DHCPDISCOVER messages to lease the entire pool of available IP addresses, thus denying them to legitimate hosts. 40. Which feature or configuration on a switch makes it vulnerable to VLAN double-tagging attacks?the limited size of content-addressable memory space Explanation: A double-tagging (or double-encapsulated) VLAN hopping attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de-encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame. This tag allows the frame to be forwarded to a VLAN that the original 802.1Q tag did not specify. An important characteristic of the double-encapsulated VLAN hopping attack is that it works even if trunk ports are disabled, because a host typically sends a frame on a segment that is not a trunk link. This type of attack is unidirectional and works only when the attacker is connected to a port residing in the same VLAN as the native VLAN of the trunk port. 41. Which component of AAA allows an administrator to track individuals who access network resources and any changes that are made to those resources?authentication Explanation: One of the components in AAA is accounting. After a user is authenticated through AAA, AAA servers keep a detailed log of exactly what actions the authenticated user takes on the device. 42. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p42 PC1 and PC2 should be able to obtain IP address assignments from the DHCP server. How many ports among switches should be assigned as trusted ports as part of the DHCP snooping configuration?1 Explanation: The DHCP snooping configuration includes building the DHCP Snooping Binding Database and assigning necessary trusted ports on switches. A trusted port points to the legitimate DHCP servers. In this network design, because the DHCP server is attached to AS3, seven switch ports should be assigned as trusted ports, one on AS3 toward the DHCP server, one on DS1 toward AS3, one on DS2 toward AS3, and two connections on both AS1 and AS2 (toward DS1 and DS2), for a total of seven. 43. An IT security specialist enables port security on a switch port of a Cisco switch. What is the default violation mode in use until the switch port is configured to use a different violation mode?Shutdown* Explanation: If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown. 44. A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.)Ensure that the correct network media is selected. 45. What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.* Explanation: SSID cloaking is a weak security feature that is performed by APs and some wireless routers by allowing the SSID beacon frame to be disabled. Although clients have to manually identify the SSID to be connected to the network, the SSID can be easily discovered. The best way to secure a wireless network is to use authentication and encryption systems. SSID cloaking does not provide free Internet access in public locations, but an open system authentication could be used in that situation. 46. What is a wireless security mode that requires a RADIUS server to authenticate wireless users?personal Explanation: WPA and WPA2 come in two types: personal and enterprise. Personal is used in home and small office networks. Shared key allows three different authentication techniques: (1) WEP, (2) WPA, and (3) 802.11i/WPA2. WEP is an encryption method. 47. A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients. Explanation: Because some users are complaining about the network being too slow, the correct option would be to split the traffic so that there are two networks using different frequencies at the same time. Replacing the wireless NICs will not necessarily correct the network being slow and it could be expensive for the company. DHCP versus static addressing should have no impact of the network being slow and it would be a huge task to have all users assigned static addressing for their wireless connection. Upgrading the firmware on the wireless access point is always a good idea. However, if some of the users are experiencing a slow network connection, it is likely that this would not substantially improve network performance. 48. Which protocol can be used to monitor the network?DHCP Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to monitor the network. 49. A network administrator deploys a wireless router in a small law firm. Employee laptops join the WLAN and receive IP addresses in the 10.0.10.0/24 network. Which service is used on the wireless router to allow the employee laptops to access the internet?DHCP Explanation: Any address with the 10 in the first octet is a private IPv4 address and cannot be routed on the internet. The wireless router will use a service called Network Address Translation (NAT) to convert private IPv4 addresses to internet-routable IPv4 addresses for wireless devices to gain access to the internet. 50. Which service can be used on a wireless router to prioritize network traffic among different types of applications so that voice and video data are prioritized over email and web data?QoS* Explanation: Many wireless routers have an option for configuring quality of service (QoS). By configuring QoS, certain time-sensitive traffic types, such as voice and video, are prioritized over traffic that is not as time-sensitive, such as email and web browsing. 51. Which access control component, implementation, or protocol is based on device roles of supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server?accounting 52. Which type of wireless network is suitable for national and global communications?wireless metropolitan-area network 53. Which feature on a switch makes it vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks?the mixed duplex mode enabled for all ports by default Explanation: A VLAN hopping attack enables traffic from one VLAN to be seen by another VLAN without routing. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, the attacker takes advantage of the automatic trunking port feature enabled by default on most switch ports. 54. Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform?accounting Explanation: One of the components in AAA is authorization. After a user is authenticated through AAA, authorization services determine which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform. 55. Refer to the exhibit.CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 10 – 13 Exam Answers p55 The Fa0/2 interface on switch S1 has been configured with the switchport port-security mac-address 0023.189d.6456 command and a workstation has been connected. What could be the reason that the Fa0/2 interface is shutdown?The Fa0/24 interface of S1 is configured with the same MAC address as the Fa0/2 interface. Explanation: The security violation counter for Fa0/2 has been incremented (evidenced by the 1 in the SecurityViolation column). The most secure addresses allowed on port Fa0/2 is 1 and that address was manually entered. Therefore, PC1 must have a different MAC address than the one configured for port Fa0/2. Connections between end devices and the switch, as well as connections between a router and a switch, are made with a straight-through cable. 56. A network administrator enters the following commands on the switch SW1.SW1(config)# interface range fa0/5 - 10 SW1(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping limit rate 6What is the effect after these commands are entered?If any of the FastEthernet ports 5 through 10 receive more than 6 DHCP messages per second, the port will be shut down. Explanation: When DHCP snooping is being configured, the number of DHCP discovery messages that untrusted ports can receive per second should be rate-limited by using the ip dhcp snooping limit rate interface configuration command. When a port receives more messages than the rate allows, the extra messages will be dropped. 57. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?off Explanation: On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred. 58. A network administrator is working to improve WLAN performance on a dual-band wireless router. What is a simple way to achieve a split-the-traffic result?Add a Wi-Fi range extender to the WLAN and set the AP and the range extender to serve different bands. Explanation: By default, dual-band routers and APs use the same network name on both the 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band. The simplest way to segment traffic is to rename one of the wireless networks. 59. Which access control component, implementation, or protocol controls what users can do on the network?accounting 60. Which type of wireless network is suitable for providing wireless access to a city or district?wireless wide-area network 61. On a Cisco 3504 WLC Summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to access and configure a WLAN for a specific security option such as WPA2?MANAGEMENT 62. What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?Yagi 63. What two IEEE 802.11 wireless standards operate only in the 5 GHz range? (Choose two.)802.11g 64. What security benefit is gained from enabling BPDU guard on PortFast enabled interfaces?preventing buffer overflow attacks Explanation: BPDU guard immediately error-disables a port that receives a BPDU. This prevents rogue switches from being added to the network. BPDU guard should only be applied to all end-user ports. 65. Which access control component, implementation, or protocol logs EXEC and configuration commands configured by a user?Authentication* 66. Which type of wireless network uses transmitters to provide coverage over an extensive geographic area?wireless metropolitan-area network 67. Which access control component, implementation, or protocol controls who is permitted to access a network?authorization 68. What two IEEE 802.11 wireless standards operate only in the 5 GHz range? (Choose two.)802.11g What is a wireless security mode that requires RADIUS server to authenticate wireless users?What is a wireless security mode that requires a RADIUS server to authenticate wireless users? Explanation: WPA and WPA2 come in two types: personal and enterprise. Personal is used in home and small office networks. Shared key allows three different authentication techniques: (1) WEP, (2) WPA, and (3) 802.11i/WPA2.
What is RADIUS in wireless security?At its most basic, RADIUS is an acronym for Remote Authentication Dial In User Service. The “Dial In” part of the name shows RADIUS's age: it's been around since 1991. Today, however, RADIUS is widely used to authenticate and authorize users to remote WiFi networks (and VPNs, network infrastructure gear, and more).
Which security modes would I most likely select to use a RADIUS server?WPA2-Enterprise: Uses WPA2 with RADIUS authentication. This mode always uses AES encryption mechanism for data encryption and requires the use of a RADIUS server to authenticate users.
What is the role of a RADIUS server in a wireless network that is secured using WPA2?Authentication requests received by the wireless access point are passed to a RADIUS server that validates the logon credentials (such as the username and password).
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