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Terms in this set (69)a. A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker's cyst. Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography? a. A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker's cyst. b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) What imaging modality is most frequently used to study the soft tissue structures of the a. Computed tomography (CT) d. Arthroscope Which of the following instruments is not required during a knee arthrogram? a. Sterile gauze c. To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed
following injection of contrast media a. To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media a. nine views of each meniscus rotated 20° between exposures. A common fluoroscopy routine for knee arthrography is: a. nine views of each meniscus rotated 20° between exposures. a. Injury or tears to rotator cuff Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography? a. Injury or tears to rotator cuff d. 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram? a. 2 inches, 16 gauge b. Scapular Y projection Which of the following projections would NOT be commonly performed during a a. Anteroposterior external/internal rotation projections d. Residual calculi What is the
most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) a. Jaundice c. 8 The patient must be NPO ____ hours (minimum) before a postoperative (T-tube) a. 4 c. gastroenterologist. The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by a: a. radiologist. a. Pseudocyst Which of the following conditions is often a contraindication for an ERCP? a. Pseudocyst b. Corpus (body) Which of the four divisions of the uterus is the largest? a. Fundus c. 10 to 12 The uterine (fallopian) tubes are approximately ____ cm in length. a. 3 to 4 a. Interstitial Which of the four segments of the uterine tube communicates with the uterine cavity? a. Interstitial d. Infundibulum The fingerlike extensions termed fimbriae connect to which part of the uterine tube? a. Interstitial c. Infundibulum Which part of the uterine tube opens into the peritoneal cavity? a. Isthmus c. uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes. The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the: a. interior of the cervix, uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries. d. All of the above Which of the following is a contraindication to hysterosalpingography? a. Pregnancy b. positive, nonionic, water soluble. The preferred contrast medium for hysterosalpingography is: a. positive, ionic, oil based. d. 2 inches (5 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis. Imaging for a hysterosalpingography includes centering of the CR and image receptor a. 4 inches (10 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis. b. Ovaries should be opacified and well demonstrated. Which of the following is NOT a valid radiographic criterion for a. Cannula or balloon catheter should be seen within the cervix. a. Subarachnoid space Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram? a. Subarachnoid space c. Herniated nucleus pulposus What is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram? a. Benign tumors a. 2 weeks. Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within a. 2 weeks. d. All of the above Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography? a. Arachnoiditis d. L3-4 What is the most common injection site for a myelogram? a. C1-2 c. To widen the interspinous spaces During a myelogram
performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block a. To force the contrast media toward the head a. Erect-seated Other than prone, what additional position is recommended for a cisternal puncture? a.
Erect-seated c. Excreted by the kidneys How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram? a. Withdrawn through a needle/syringe c. 9 to 15 mL What is an average dosage of contrast media given during a myelogram? a. 1 to 2 mL d. Nonionic, water soluble What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram? a. Iodinated, oil based c. patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral. The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelography is: a. patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral, left and right lateral decubitus (AP c. Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram? a. Patient discomfort at puncture site d. Patient prone: horizontal beam
lateral (centered to C4-5) and swimmer's horizontal Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical a. Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer's lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal b. straight or right angle to radiography. The literal definition of orthoroentgenography is: a. long bone measurement. c. CT involves high cost and specialized equipment. The chief disadvantage of CT scanograms as compared with orthoroentgenography is: a. distortion of joints due to penumbra. a. epiphysiodesis. A limb-shortening surgical procedure is termed: a. epiphysiodesis. c. Bell-Thompson ruler What is the name of the special ruler used in orthoroentgenography? a. Long bone ruler a. The patient should not move between exposures. Which of the following factors is most critical when performing a. The patient should not move between exposures. a. Size of anatomy Which
one of the following is not a factor that directly controls or influences the a. Size of anatomy b. fulcrum. The pivot point between the x-ray tube and IR in a tomographic system is termed: a. amplitude.
a. tomographic angle. The total distance the x-ray tube travels is termed: a. tomographic angle. d. both A and B. Objects within the body that are farther from the objective plane have: a. greater movement. a. Intravenous urography Which of the following procedures is the most common application of conventional a. Intravenous urography b. sharper and in relative focus. Objects within the objective plane will appear: a. blurred. d. 40° Which of the following exposure angles will produce the thinnest sectional thickness? a. 10° b. their images move from one part of the IR to another as the tube and IR move through their travel during the exposure. Objects within the body above and below the focal plane appear blurred because: a. they are not placed parallel to the direction of tube travel. c. body section radiography. Another term for tomography is: a. computed tomography. Blur Distortion of objects outside the object plane Tomographic angle The total distance the x-ray tube travels Tomogram Radiograph produced by a tomographic unit Object plane The plane where the target anatomy is clear Fulcrum The pivot point between tube and IR Exposure angle The factor that determines slice thickness False T/F: Intercondylar fossa projections are often required during a conventional knee True T/F: CT and MRI arthrography has significantly reduced the number of radiographic True T/F: An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can either be a diagnostic or a therapeutic procedure. True T/F: The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile. False T/F: The patient must remain NPO (nothing by mouth) a minimum of 8 hours following an False T/F: Arachnoiditis is a clinical indication for a myelogram procedure. True T/F: Most disk pathology of the spine occurs in the cervical and lumbar regions. False T/F: Long bone measurement of the lower limb requires that the entire lower limb be False T/F: Gonadal shielding cannot be used for long bone measurement of the lower limb for False T/F: The wrist should be placed into the pronated PA position for a long bone study of the False T/F: Lower limb orthoroentgenograms should be performed nongrid. False T/F: Linear tomography is primarily used for studies of the temporal bones. True T/F: The primary factor affecting the sectional thickness, as controlled by the operator, is False T/F: More blurring occurs with a shorter exposure angle. Sets with similar termsCH 22 Workbook71 terms cindyLthomas practice test 147 terms Chrystall6 Sets found in the same folderSPECIAL PROCEDURES50 terms PZiemdorf Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gast…127 terms BLCJackie Ch. 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures53 terms lindsey_mayesPLUS Chapter 9 Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx78 terms xray_goddess Other sets by this creatorextra, Other CT Quiz questions224 terms Tea-Bagginss extra11 terms Tea-Bagginss Other CT Quiz questions210 terms Tea-Bagginss CT Physics Quizzes 4 DR74 terms Tea-Bagginss Other Quizlet setsCareer success standard test16 terms Mr_AndersonWL22 Les phrases culturelles 6 ieme six weeks17 terms Covarrubias_Julieta Henry's Law - Jason75 terms llouisjohnson Advanced A&P Urinary System66 terms alexacohen6PLUS Related questionsQUESTION What are the Cardinal Principles of Radiation 15 answers QUESTION In what image modality is annihilation radiation used 14 answers QUESTION What is the treatment for compression fractures 15 answers QUESTION Why should a single lateral projection of the sacrum and coccyx be performed rather than separate laterals of the sacrum and coccyx? 15 answers Which of the following are indications for a knee arthrography?Indications for MR arthrography of the knee include assessment of the postoperative meniscus, the presence of chondral and osteochondral lesions, and the presence of intra-articular bodies. The major indication for CT arthrography is evaluating suspected internal derangement in patients who are unable to undergo MRI.
What is knee arthrography?What is arthrography? Arthrography is a type of imaging test used to look at a joint, such as the shoulder, knee, or hip. It may be done if standard X-rays do not show the needed details of the joint structure and function.
Where is contrast media instilled during a myelogram?The contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space by lumbar puncture.
Which of the following tomographic techniques would be most suitable for a study of the entire mandible?CT is the current diagnostic tool of choice for the radiographic evaluation and diagnosis of mandible fractures. A panoramic tomographic view (Panorex view) [6, 7, 4] shows the entire mandible in one plane.
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