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Terms in this set (20)
A client with hypoparathyroidism complains of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around the mouth. The nurse would assess for what electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypocalcemia
Hypoparathyroidism can cause low serum calcium levels. Numbness and tingling in extremities and in the circumoral area around the mouth are the hallmark signs of hypocalcemia. Normal calcium level is 9 to 11 mg/dl.
The nurse evaluates which of the following clients to be at risk for developing hypernatremia?
A. 50-year-old with pneumonia, diaphoresis, and high fevers
B. 62-year-old with congestive heart failure taking loop diuretics
C. 39-year-old with diarrhea and
vomiting
D. 60-year-old with lung cancer and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
A. 50-year-old with pneumonia, diaphoresis, and high fevers
Diaphoresis and a high fever can lead to free water loss through the skin, resulting in hypernatremia. Loop diuretics are more likely to result in a hypovolemic hyponatremia. Diarrhea and vomiting cause both sodium and water losses. Clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) have hyponatremia, due to increased water reabsorption in the renal tubules.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis who, with treatment, has a normal blood glucose, pH, and serum osmolality. During assessment, the client complains of weakness in the legs. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
A. Request a physical therapy consult from the physician
B. Ensure the client is safe from falls and check the
most recent potassium level
C. Allow uninterrupted rest periods throughout the day
D. Encourage the client to increase intake of dairy products and green leafy vegetables.
B. Ensure the client is safe from falls and check the most recent potassium level
In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, the blood sugar is lowered, the pH is corrected, and potassium moves back into the cells, resulting in low serum potassium. Client safety and the correction of low potassium levels are a priority. The weakness in the legs is a clinical manifestation of the hypokalemia. Dairy products and green, leafy vegetables are a source of calcium.
A client with a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is to receive sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) orally. After administering the drug, the priority nursing action is to monitor
A. Urine output.
B. Blood pressure.
C. Bowel movements.
D.
ECG for tall, peaked T waves.
C. Bowel movements.
Kayexalate causes potassium to be exchanged for sodium in the intestines and excreted through bowel movements. If client does not have stools, the drug cannot work properly. Blood pressure and urine output are not of primary importance. The nurse would already expect changes in T waves with hyperkalemia. Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been in good health up to the present and is admitted with cellulitis of the hand. The client's serum potassium level was 4.5 mEq/L yesterday. Today the level is 7 mEq/L. Which of the following is the next appropriate nursing action?
A. Call the physician and report results
B. Question the results and redraw the specimen
C. Encourage the client to increase the intake of bananas
D. Initiate seizure precautions
B. Question the results and redraw the specimen
A client who has been in good health up to the present is admitted for cellulitis of the hands. When the serum potassium goes from 4.5 mEq/L to 7.0 mEq/L with no risk factors for hyperkalemia, false high results should be suspected because of hemolysis of the specimen. The physician would likely question results as well. Bananas are a food high in potassium. Seizures are not a clinical manifestation of hyperkalemia.
A client is receiving an intravenous magnesium infusion to correct a serum level of 1.4 mEq/L. Which of the following assessments would alert the nurse to immediately stop the infusion?
A. Absent patellar reflex
B. Diarrhea
C. Premature ventricular contractions
D. Increase in blood pressure
A. Absent patellar reflex
An intravenous magnesium infusion may be used to treat a low serum magnesium level. Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. Clinical manifestations of hypermagnesemia are the result of depressed neuromuscular transmission. Absent reflexes indicate a magnesium level around 7 mEq/L. Diarrhea and PVCs are not clinical manifestations of high magnesium levels. Hypermagnesemia causes hypotension.
A client with chronic renal failure reports a 10 pound weight loss over 3 months and has had difficulty taking calcium supplements. The total calcium is 6.9 mg/dl. Which of the following would be the first nursing action?
A. Assess for depressed deep tendon reflexes
B. Call the physician to report calcium level
C. Place an intravenous catheter in anticipation of administering calcium gluconate
D. Check to see if a serum albumin level is available
D. Check to see if a serum albumin level is available
A client with chronic renal failure who reports a 10 pound weight loss over 3 months and has difficulty taking calcium supplements is poorly nourished and likely to have hypoalbuminemia. A drop in serum albumin will result in a false low total calcium level. Placing an IV is not a priority action. Depressed reflexes are a sign of hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl.
A client with heart failure is complaining of nausea. The client has received IV furosemide (Lasix), and the urine output has been 2500 ml over the past 12 hours. The client's home drugs include metoprolol (Lopressor), digoxin (Lanoxin), furosemide, and multivitamins. Which of the following are the appropriate nursing actions before administering the digoxin? Select all that apply.
A. Administer an antiemetic prior to giving the digoxin
B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
C. Call the physician
D. Report the urine output
E. Report indications of nausea
C. Call the physician
D.
Report the urine output
E. Report indications of nausea
Potassium is lost during diuresis with a loop diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix). Hypokalemia can cause digitalis toxicity, which often results in nausea. The physician should be notified, and digoxin should be held until potassium levels and digoxin levels are checked. Peaked T waves and widened QRS are manifestations of hyperkalemia.
The nurse is caring for a bedridden client admitted with multiple myeloma and a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Provide passive ROM exercises and encourage fluid intake
B. Teach the client to increase intake of whole grains and nuts
C. Place a tracheostomy tray at the bedside
D. Administer calcium gluconate IM as ordered
A. Provide passive ROM exercises and encourage fluid intake
A client who has a serum calcium of 13 mg/dl has hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl. Fluid intake promotes renal excretion of excess calcium. ROM exercises promote reabsorption of calcium into bone. Placing a tracheostomy at the bedside is a nursing intervention for hypocalcemia. Although calcium gluconate may be administered in hypocalcemia, it is never administered IM.
An older adult client admitted with heart failure and a sodium level of 113 mEq/L is behaving aggressively toward staff and does not recognize family members. When the family expresses concern about the client's behavior, the nurse would respond most appropriately by stating
A. "The client may be suffering from dementia, and the hospitalization has worsened the confusion."
B. "Most older adults get confused in the hospital."
C. "The sodium level is low, and the confusion will resolve as the levels normalize."
D. "The sodium level is high and the behavior is a result of
dehydration."
C. "The sodium level is low, and the confusion will resolve as the levels normalize."
Normal serum level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Neurological symptoms occur when sodium levels fall below 120 mEq/L. The confusion is an acute condition that will go away as the sodium levels normalize. Dementia is an irreversible condition.
A client with a serum sodium of 115 mEq/L has been receiving 3% NS at 50 ml/hr for 16 hours. This morning the client feels tired and short of breath. Which of the following interventions is a priority?
A. Turn down the infusion
B. Check the latest sodium level
C. Assess for signs of fluid overload
D. Place a call to the physician
C. Assess for signs of fluid overload
A complication of hypertonic sodium solution administration is fluid overload. While turning down the infusion, checking the latest sodium level, and notifying the physician may all be reasonable, the priority intervention is to assess for manifestations of fluid overload. Assessment is always the priority to determine what action to take next.
A client with chronic renal failure receiving dialysis complains of frequent constipation. When performing discharge teaching, which over-the-counter products should the nurse instruct the client to avoid at home?
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
suppository
B. Fiber supplements
C. Docusate sodium
D. Milk of magnesia
D. Milk of magnesia
Milk of magnesia contains magnesium, an electrolyte that is excreted by kidneys. Clients with renal failure are at risk for hypermagnesemia, since their bodies cannot excrete the excess magnesium. The client should avoid magnesium-containing laxatives.
A client is receiving intravenous potassium supplementation in addition to maintenance fluids. The urine output has been 120 ml every 8 hours for the past 16 hours and the next dose is due. Before administering the next potassium dose, which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
B. Administer the dose as ordered
C. Draw a potassium level and administer the dose if the level is low or normal
D. Notify the physician of the urine output and hold the dose
D. Notify the physician of the urine output and hold the dose
Urine output is an indication of renal function. Normal urine output is at least 30 ml/hour. Clients with impaired renal function are at risk for hyperkalemia. Initiating a lab draw requires a physician order.
The nurse should monitor for clinical manifestations of hypophosphatemia in which of the following clients?
A. A client with osteoporosis taking
vitamin D and calcium supplements
B. A client who is alcoholic receiving total parenteral nutrition
C. A client with chronic renal failure awaiting the first dialysis run
D. A client with hypoparathyroidism secondary to thyroid surgery
B. A client who is alcoholic receiving total parenteral nutrition
A client with osteoporosis taking vitamin and calcium supplements, a client with chronic renal failure awaiting dialysis, and a client with hypoparathyroidism secondary to thyroid surgery are at risk for hyperphosphatemia. Alcoholics and clients receiving TPN are at risk for low phosphorus levels, due to poor intestinal absorption and shifting of phosphorus into cells along with insulin and glucose.
A client admitted with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dl. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods upon discharge? Select all that apply.
A. Eggs
B. Broccoli
C. Organ meats
D. Nuts
E. Canned salmon
B. Broccoli
D. Nuts
E. Canned salmon
Fish, eggs, and organ meats are high in phosphorus. Broccoli, nuts, and canned salmon are high in calcium. Clients with lung or breast cancer often have elevated calcium levels due to tumor-induced hyperparathyroidism.
A client with pancreatitis has been receiving potassium supplementation for four days since being admitted with a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Today the potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check before notifying the physician of the client's failure to respond to treatment?
A. Sodium
B. Phosphorus
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
D. Magnesium
Low serum magnesium levels can inhibit potassium ions from crossing cell membranes, resulting in potassium loss through the urine. Generally, low magnesium levels must be corrected before potassium replacement is effective.
The nurse should include which of the following instructions to assist in controlling phosphorus levels for a client in renal failure?
A. Increase intake of dairy products and nuts
B. Take aluminum-based antacids such as aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) with or after meals
C. Reduce intake of chocolate, meats,
and whole grains
D. Avoid calcium supplements
B. Take aluminum-based antacids such as aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) with or after meals
Aluminum-based antacids are often prescribed in the treatment of renal failure to bind with phosphate and increase elimination through the GI tract. Dairy products and nuts are foods high in phosphorus. Chocolate, meats, and whole grains are foods high in magnesium. Clients with renal failure often require calcium supplements as a result of poor vitamin D metabolism and in order to prevent hyperphosphatemia.
A client with pneumonia presents with the following arterial blood gases: pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 74, HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and PO2 of 45, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Administer a sedative
B. Place client in left lateral position
C. Place client in high-Fowler's position
D. Assist the client to breathe
into a paper bag
C. Place client in high-Fowler's position
The client with a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 74, HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and PO2 of 45 is in a state of respiratory acidosis. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position will facilitate the expansion of the lungs and help the client blow off the excess CO2. Sedatives would impede respirations. The question does not indicate which is the affected lung, so left lateral position would not be a first choice. Breathing into a paper bag will cause the PCO2 to rise higher.
A client with COPD feels short of breath after walking to the bathroom on 2 liters of oxygen nasal cannula. The morning's ABGs were pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 62, HCO3 of 35 mEq/L, O2 at 88% on 2 liters. Which of the following should be the nurse's first intervention?
A. Call the physician and report the change in client's condition
B. Turn the client's O2 up to 4 liters nasal
cannula
C. Encourage the client to sit down and to take deep breaths
D. Encourage the client to rest and to use pursed-lip breathing technique
D. Encourage the client to rest and to use pursed-lip breathing technique
Clients with COPD, especially those who are in a chronic compensated respiratory acidosis, are very sensitive to changes in O2 flow, because hypoxemia rather than high CO2 levels stimulates respirations. Deep breaths are not helpful, because clients with COPD have difficulty with air trapping in alveoli. There is no need to call the physician, since this client is presently most likely at baseline.
A client who had a recent surgery has been vomiting and becomes dizzy while standing up to go to the bathroom. After assisting the client back to bed, the nurse notes that the blood pressure is 55/30 and the pulse is 140. The nurse hangs which of the following IV fluids to correct this condition?
A. D5.45 NS at 50 ml/hr
B. 0.9 NS at an open rate
C. D5W at 125 ml/hr
D. 0.45 NS at open rate
B. 0.9 NS at an open rate
A client who recently had surgery, is vomiting, becomes dizzy when standing up, has a blood pressure of 55/30, and has a pulse of 140 is hypovolemic and requires plasma volume expansion. Isotonic fluids such as 0.9 NS will expand volume. Hypotonic fluids such as 0.45 NS will leave the intravascular space. D5W will metabolize into free water and leave the intravascular space. D5.45 NS is a good maintenance fluid but a rate of 50 ml per hour is not sufficient to expand the vascular volume quickly.
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