H-1) Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous material? C. Scalds if heated too high Water scalds if heated too high and is not a hazardous material. The other effects are self-produced by the materials themselves, and are the effects of certain hazardous materials. H-2) A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if it: C. forms part of a daily diet. No material that could be part of a daily diet could be a hazardous material. The other effects are hazards produced by various hazardous materials. H-3) Which of the following best describes the roles
of Hazardous Materials Specialists? A. They act as a
liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities. Hazardous Materials Specialists have advanced knowledge and skills, and act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities with regard to site activities. H-4) Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect people, property, and the
environment? C. First Responder Operations The First Responder Operations level of training is required for those who respond initially to hazardous materials incidents to protect life, property, and the environment. H-5) To identify the exact substance an overturned chemical truck was carrying, the EMT would consult: B. the bill of lading. Check invoices, bills of lading (trucks), and shipping
manifests (trains). If you can safely obtain them, these documents will identify the exact substance being transported, the exact quantity, its place of origin, and its destination. H-6) You respond to a call for multiple medical patients who all passed out at the same time while working at a chemical processing plant. You strongly suspect a HAZMAT incident. Keeping your distance from the scene of the
incident, you must: B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. You must make an attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. Until that is done, it will be difficult to determine the risk to the public, rescuers, patients, and the environment. You must try to find out what the substance is and what its properties and dangers might be; whether or not there is imminent danger of the contamination spreading; what you can hear, see, and smell; how many patients are involved; and if there is any danger of
secondary contamination from the patients. H-7) Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA placard? C. Reactivity Blue = Health H-8) Division 1.6 of the hazard classification system identifies: C. extremely insensitive detonating articles. Class 1 of the hazard classification system is explosives. Division 1.6 is extremely
insensitive detonating articles. H-9) Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping manifests? B. The origin of the shipment The exact name of the substance, the quantity of the substance, its origin, and its destination are required information on shipping manifests. H-10) Which of the following is a reference that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency? A. Emergency Response Guidebook The North American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a resource that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency. H-11) Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm zone? A. Decontamination Patients must be completely decontaminated before entering
the cold zone, in order to avoid secondary contamination of responders, equipment, ambulances, and other personnel. H-12) Which of the following must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident? D. Shedding all contaminated clothing Before entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident, the rescue team that was in the hot zone must be decontaminated and must shed all their contaminated clothing. H-13) What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or
hot zones of a hazardous incident? C. Isolate it and label it for
disposal H-14) Where is the safest zone to provide medical care of a patient who has been covered with a hazardous material? A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated The hot zone is the location of the danger, the warm zone is where the decontamination corridor is located, and the cold zone is a safe location for treatment of patients who have been decontaminated. H-15) A large-scale MCI creates a
situation that: D. tests the capabilities of even the best-trained EMTs Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the
same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude. H-16) Which of the following statements regarding a small-scale MCI that expands into
a large-scale MCI is most accurate?
A. Irritates the eyes and respiratory tract
B. Produces pulmonary edema
C. Scalds if heated too high
D. Causes self-ignition of cellulose products
A. forms toxic hydrochloric acid fumes.
B. is flammable and explosive.
C. forms part of
a daily diet.
D. damages the eyes and mucous membranes.
A. They act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities.
B. They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies.
C. They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading.
D. They plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist
B. Hazardous Materials Technician
C. First Responder Operations
D. First Responder Awareness
A. the hazardous materials placard.
B. the bill of lading.
C. the safety data sheet.
D. the shipping manifest.
A. look for fumes through binoculars before approaching.
B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation.
C. wait for a HAZMAT team to arrive and assess the situation.
D. approach the scene only from an upwind direction.
A. Health
B. Fire
C. Reactivity
D. Specific
Red = Fire
White = Specific Hazard
A. toxic materials.
B. dangerous wastes.
C. extremely insensitive detonating articles.
D. flammable gases.
A. The temperature at which the material vaporizes
B. The origin of the shipment
C. The specific health hazards of the material
D. The specific gravity of the chemical
A.
Emergency Response Guidebook
B. Poison control
C. NFPA
D. MSDS
A. Decontamination
B. Packaging for transport
C. Debriefing about the nature of the exposure
D. A complete physical examination and history
A. Donning a self-contained breathing apparatus
B. Requesting permission from incident command
C. Donning a fresh protective suit
D. Shedding all contaminated
clothing
A. Change into scrubs on arriving at the hospital and place the clothing in hospital laundry
B. Red-bag the items, and place them in regular hospital biohazard containers
C. Isolate it and label it for disposal
D. On returning to station, remove the clothing and launder it in hot water for two cycles
A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated
B. In the cold zone before the patient has been decontaminated
C. In the warm zone while the patient is being decontaminated
D. In the hot zone before the patient has been decontaminated
A. is routine for EMTs to handle.
B. involves the release of and exposure to hazardous materials.
C. can typically be managed by 23 ambulance units.
D. tests the capabilities of even the best-trained EMTs.
A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.
B. The EMTs will require authorization from medical control to perform any lifesaving technique they feel is necessary to contain the situation.
C. The EMTs will need to retreat to a staging area until more resources arrive.
D. The EMTs will draw on a completely different set of skills and techniques from anything they would use on a smaller scale.
A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.
Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude
H-17) Which of the following is needed for effective response to an MCI?
A. Public participation
B. Requesting and managing necessary resources
C. Media coverage
D. On-scene physicians
B. Requesting and managing necessary resources
Requesting and properly managing adequate resources are required for efficient response to an MCI.
H-18) Ideally, on the scene of an MCI, those who directly communicate with command should be:
A. the EMTs who first arrived on scene.
B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.
C. any newly
arriving responders.
D. any personnel involved in triage efforts.
B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.
The flow of communications at the scene of a large-scale MCI should correspond to the organizational chart being used. Accordingly, the only unit talking to the communications center and requesting resources is command. The only ones who talk to command are those directly subordinate to command. All others talk to only the officer or supervisor to whom they are assigned. These mandates should be addressed in your standard operating guidelines.
H-19) EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should be:
A. disciplined for shift abandonment.
B. assigned to noncritical patients.
C. treated as patients.
D. sent home
immediately.
H-20) Which of the following words best describes the attitude EMTs should have when responding to an MCI?
A. Fearless
B. Unsympathetic
C. Vigilant
D. Aggressive
C. Vigilant
It is important for the responder to be vigilant for unhealthy behaviors brought about by stressful events.
H-21) Surge capacity refers to:
A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients.
B. the formula for determining the number of ambulances to dispatch to a given incident.
C. the size of a staging area for a large-scale MCI.
D. the second wind EMTs often feel late in the response to an MCI.
A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients
Surge capacity is a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. It is dependent on a well-functioning incident management system and the variables of space, supplies, staff, and any special considerations (contaminated or contagious patients, for example).
H-22) The person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident is the:
A. staging supervisor.
B. transportation supervisor.
C. incident commander.
D. triage supervisor.
B. transportation supervisor.
The transportation supervisor is the person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident.
H-23) You are assigned to the triage unit at an MCI, and you are going from patient to patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the process?
A.
Splinting fractures
B. Performing bag-valve-mask ventilations
C. Performing spinal immobilization
D. Opening the airway
D. Opening the airway
You must rapidly assess each remaining patient, stopping only to secure an airway or stop profuse bleeding. It is important that you not develop "tunnel vision" - spending time rendering additional care to any one patient and thus failing to identify and correct life-threatening conditions of the remaining patients.
H-24) The first triage cut involves:
A. identifying the dead or fatally injured.
B. identifying those with serious but not life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
C. treating patients with life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
D. identifying the walking wounded.
D. identifying the walking wounded.
The first triage cut can be done rapidly by using a bullhorn, PA system, or loud voice to direct all patients capable of walking (Priority 3) to move to a particular area. This has a two-fold purpose. It quickly identifies the individuals who have an airway and circulation, and it physically separates them from patients who will generally need more care.
H-25) Which of the following best describes secondary triage?
A. A more in-depth, head-to-toe assessment of the patient to better determine the patient's status
B. Going back to patients who were presumed deceased to begin resuscitation, as resources allow
C. Taking a full set of vital signs and a comprehensive patient history
D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the
patient reaches the triage area, to determine whether a patient's priority should be upgraded or downgraded
D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage area, to determine whether a patient's priority should be upgraded or downgraded
Secondary triage refers to the process of reassessing findings from primary triage to reclassify the patient, if necessary.
H-26) Which of the following statements best explains the difference between primary triage and secondary triage?
A. Primary triage assigns a priority number to patients based on severity of condition; secondary triage organizes incoming resources to determine which responders are cleared to begin providing care.
B. Patients' conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after
primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.
C. Primary triage is performed in the field to determine to which hospital to transport; secondary triage is performed in the hospital to determine how soon to treat the patient.
D. Primary triage is aimed at detecting immediate life threats; secondary triage is aimed at obtaining patient histories.
B. Patients' conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.
Secondary triage is performed after primary triage to detect any changes in the patients' priority for transport.
H-27) At an MCI, which of the following is performed when the EMT first encounters an injured patient?
A. Secondary triage
B. Modified secondary assessment
C. Primary triage
D. Modified primary assessment
H-28) The highest priority for treatment and transport at an MCI are patients who are triaged to which of the following categories?
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
C. Red
Green = Lowest
Yellow = Severe
Red = Critical
Black = Dead/Dying/Death Imminent
H-29) Which of the following findings would result in a patient at an MCI's being categorized as yellow in START triage?
A. Capillary refill <2 seconds, unable to follow commands
B. Not
breathing, but begins breathing once the airway is open
C. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
D. Absent radial pulse, spontaneous breathing
C. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
To be placed in the yellow category in START triage, a patient must not have been able to move with the walking wounded and must be breathing fewer than 30 times per minute, have a radial pulse or capillary refill less than 2 seconds, and be alert.
H-30) Which of the following would place a patient as a Priority 1, or red, during START triage?
A. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
B. Not breathing, no pulse
C. Able to walk to a collection point in response to a bullhorn command
D.
Respirations >30 per minute, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status
D. Respirations >30 per minute, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status
Respirations over 30, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status are criteria for category 1, or red.
H-31) You are
START-triaging a child who is not breathing. When you have opened the airway, the child does not begin breathing. Which of the following is the correct next step?
A. Tag the child as "black" and move on.
B. Give five rescue breaths.
C. Check the pupils for size and reactivity.
D. Begin chest compressions at a ratio of 30 compressions to two ventilations.
A. Tag the child as "black" and move on.
In START triage, a patient is categorized as "black" if, after opening the airway, the patient does not begin breathing.
Smaller incidents - a zero could be a 1
H-32) Which of the following best describes the patients who are assigned to the green category in triage?
A. Deceased
B. Delayed
C. Minor
D. Immediate
C. Minor
The green category is used for patients with minor injuries, often referred to as "the walking wounded."
H-33) You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you await your assigned patient?
A. Base camp
B. Triage
C. Treatment
D. Staging
D. Staging
Ambulances wait in the staging area until requested for patient transport.
H-34) Who is responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at an MCI?
A. The staging supervisor
B. The incident commander
C. The transportation officer
D. The safety officer
A. The staging supervisor
The staging supervisor is responsible for overseeing ambulance operations at an MCI.
PT-1) What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a multiple-casualty incident?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 2
D. 3
PT-2) An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI is:
A. telling the patient that despite how it looks, everyone at the scene will be okay.
B. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients.
C. asking the patient to consider the possibility the patient is in denial.
D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.
D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.
PT-3) Field decontamination takes place in the:
A. hot zone.
B. cold zone.
C. safe zone.
D. warm zone.
PT-4)
What are the three criteria for assessing patients during triage?
A. Skin condition, pupil response, and grip strength
B. Ability to walk, cervical spine injury, and mental status
C. Ability to speak, level of orientation, and severity of injuries
D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
PT-5) Which of the following is a basic principle of disaster-preparedness planning?
A. Develop a proposal that requires more resources before planning can begin.
B. Develop a plan that can be activated only by the highest-ranking government official.
C. Develop very detailed plans that do not permit deviation from stated guidelines.
D. Prepare a plan that is specific, practical, and well-understood.
D. Prepare a plan that is specific, practical, and well-understood.
PT-6)At what point should transport of the injured begin at an MCI?
A. After all "minor" patients have been directed to a treatment area, to relieve congestion at the scene
B. As soon as the first ambulance arrives
C. After all
patients have been triaged
D. After triage has identified "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units
D. After triage has identified "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units
PT-7) Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and meals, and for the rotation of crews?
A. Command
B. Transportation
C. Staging
D. Supply
PT-8) During triage of a 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is awake, breathing 28 times per minute, has a palpable pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not
ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this patient?
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Red
D. Yellow
PT-9) What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an MCI?
A. Treat the EMT as a patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest
B. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until the EMT feels better enough to return to duty
C. Review the EMT's performance, to identify what
went wrong
D. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients
A. Treat the EMT as a patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest
PT-10) In which type of incident would unified command be most appropriate?
A. An incident that involves only EMS
B. More than three patients at a
scene
C. An incident that involves only fire/rescue
D. Involvement of different branches of public safety
D. Involvement of different branches of public safety
PT-11) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of triage?
A. To treat the youngest, healthiest patients
first
B. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered
C. To find and treat all of one patient's injuries before moving on to the next patient
D. To prioritize patients in an MCI
D. To prioritize patients in an MCI
PT-12) When you call an emergency response service
or agency regarding hazardous materials, which information is LEAST relevant?
A. Nature and location of the problem
B. Injuries and exposures
C. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released
D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun
D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun
PT-13) Which of the following is the best choice for triage supervisor?
A. The oldest EMS provider
B. The highest-ranking EMS provider
C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider
D. The senior EMT
C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider
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PT-14) A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be assigned?
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
PT-15) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a multiple-casualty incident?
A. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair
B. A high-speed impact between a minivan and a
sedan
C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail
D. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment
C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail
PT-16) Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in MCIs?
A. Opening the airway and
controlling severe bleeding
B. Applying cervical collars and opening the airway
C. Refraining from providing all treatment
D. Inserting oral or nasal airways and performing bag-valve-mask ventilations
A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding
PT-17) Which of the following is
considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials incidents?
A. NSA
B. FEMA
C. CHEMTREC
D. DHS
PT-18) Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually present?
A. Hot zone
B. Contamination zone
C. Cold zone
D. Warm zone
PT-19) At a hazardous materials incident,
which of the following areas is used for triaging patients, performing necessary treatment, and stabilizing patients before transport?
A. Warm zone
B. Cold zone
C. Decon zone
D. Hot zone
PT-20) You arrive at the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident and see several patients lying on the ground next to an overturned truck with what looks like chemicals leaking out of it in all directions. You
should:
A. take a command position.
B. immediately act to save the patients.
C. approach cautiously.
D. call out to the patients to see if any can leave the area of the accident.
A. take a command position.
PT-21) All patients leaving the site of a hazardous materials incident should be
considered:
A. contaminated.
B. low-priority.
C. stable.
D. cleared for transport.
PT-22) A hot zone is:
A. immediately identifiable with placards.
B. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident.
C. an area where the support functions for an incident response are located.
D. an area where personnel and equipment are decontaminated.
B. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident.
PT-23) Which statement best describes the use of the "black" category in START triage?
A. Patients who have minor injuries and do not need immediate care
B. Patients who refuse treatment
C. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain
their airway or breathing
D. Patients who have immediate threats to life, including rapid respirations, poor perfusion, and altered mental status
C. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing
PT-24) Which of the following best
describes the required contents of shipping manifests associated with hazardous materials?
A. Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination
B. The levels of toxicity, flammability, and reactivity
C. Health hazards, flammability hazards, explosion hazards, and special hazards
D. Route of exposure, signs and symptoms, classification, and chemical structure
A. Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination
PT-25) What is the purpose of secondary triage?
A. To reevaluate each patient's priority for treatment and transport
B. To conduct a comprehensive examination of all patients
C. To assess patients who were not immediately found in the initial response
D. To perform START triage
A. To reevaluate each patient's priority for treatment and transport
PT-26) Which of the following is most likely to indicate the presence of released hazardous material?
A. A patient who is not breathing
B. Black smoke
C. Sudden irritation of the eyes
D. Fire
C. Sudden irritation of the eyes
PT-27) What is the highest level of training for HAZMAT incidents under OSHA regulations?
A. On-Scene Incident Commander
B. First Responder Operations
C. Hazardous Materials Specialist
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A. On-Scene Incident Commander
PT-28) Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704 placard?
A. Fire hazard
B. Specific hazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazard
PT-29) A responder who has been assigned to decontamination has which of
the following responsibilities?
A. Being willing to treat patients without wearing PPE that could cause secondary contamination
B. Providing contaminated PPE to responders heading back to the hot zone
C. Treating patients as they are received
D. Performing triage in PPE
D. Performing triage in PPE
PT-30) Organization for a smaller MCI would involve:
A. command and a triage supervisor.
B. treatment and transportation supervisors.
C. aides to the triage supervisor.
D. site operations.
A. command and a triage supervisor.
PT-31)
During START triage, you encounter an adult patient who is not breathing. Which of the following actions is the next step you should take?
A. Check the patient's pulse.
B. Assign the patient a black tag.
C. Start CPR.
D. Open the airway and reassess breathing.
D. Open the airway and reassess breathing.
PT-32) A hazardous material incident would be LEAST likely to take place:
A. along a railroad.
B. on the highway.
C. in a factory
D. at a school.
PT-33) The area in which secondary triage takes place at a multiple-casualty incident is the:
A. transportation area.
B. warm zone.
C. triage area.
D. treatment area.
PT-34) In
addition to toxicity and flammability, which of the following is among the harmful properties of hazardous materials?
A. Instability
B. Reactivity
C. Conversion
D. Solubility
PT-35) Which of the following HAZMAT training levels requires at least 24 hours of training?
A. First Responder Awareness
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Operations
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
PT-36) You are directed to establish a rehab area at a HAZMAT incident. You know that this area must be:
A. at least a quarter of a mile from the hot zone.
B. established within the warm zone.
C. away from the media and the public.
D. easily accessible
to EMS units.
D. easily accessible to EMS units.
CT-1) You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli,
and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
CT-2) When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital?
A. Transporting EMT
B. Incident commander
C. Triage officer
D.
Transportation supervisor
D. Transportation supervisor
CT-3) When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following?
A. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance
B. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated
section officer
C. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient
D. Keeping a log of all patients transported
B. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
CT-4) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some
simple commands and what three physiologic parameters?
A. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
B. Respiration, pain, and mental status
C. Respiration, sensory, and motor status
D. Circulation, sensory, and motor status
A. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
CT-5) Which of the
following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident?
A. Downwind, downhill from the spill
B. Downwind, uphill from the spill
C. Upwind, uphill from the spill
D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill
D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill
CT-6) As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:
A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
B. ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.
C. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
D. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises
A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
CT-7) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #3 is a
38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive.
A. Priority 3, green tag
B. Priority 1, red tag
C. Priority 4, black tag
D. Priority 2, yellow tag
C. Priority 4, black tag
CT-8) Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions
that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also be:
A. written, realistic, and rehearsed.
B. well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
C. well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
D. written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
C. well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
Written
Well
Publicized
Multi-Jurisdictional
Rehearsed
CT-9) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies?
A. NAEMT and NHTSA
B. OSHA and EPA
C. DOT and FCC
D. NHTSA and NRC
CT-10) You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving
fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should:
A. recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
B. recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
C. secure the scene quickly, triage each patient,
and move to fresh air.
D. recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.
B. recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
CT-11) You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.
B. Identify all Priority 1 patients.
C. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
D. Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.
C. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
CT-12) EMS operations generally include which six areas?
A. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
B. Extrication, Operations, Logistics,
Triage, Finance, and Transportation
C. Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation
D. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
A. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
CT-13)
Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command?
A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
B. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.
C. Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.
D. None of the above
A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
(Page 1194 "manageable span of control to be between 3-7 people)
CT-14) Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency?
A. Requesting special resources to respond
B. Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
C. Establishing a safe zone
D. Rescuing any victims still
in the area of the spill
D. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
CT-15) You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious
distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point?
A. Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients.
B. Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties.
C. Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.
D. Evaluate the scene further for indications
of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.
D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.
CT-16) When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over
the others, this is called:
A. ICS.
B. NIMS.
C. single incident command.
D. unified command.
CT-17) ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control is:
A. 12 people.
B. 24 people.
C. 18 people.
D. 7 people.
CT-18) In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies?
A.
Farm service agencies
B. Manufacturing industries
C. Shipping ports
D. All of the above
CT-19) What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their toxins?
A. Emulsification
B. Dilution
C. Absorption
D. Disinfection
CT-20) When grossly decontaminating a
patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Scrubbing with a long-handled brush
B. Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar
C. Using a high pressure water jet system
D. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower
D. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower
CT-21) Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation area in a hazardous materials incident?
A. Providing for hydration of rescue crews
B. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews
C. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area
D. All of the above
CT-22) ________ is the
response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material.
A. CHEMTREC
B. OSHA
C. ERG
D. EPA
CT-23) Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials
emergency?
A. Identification of the substance
B. The properties and potential dangers of the substance
C. Potential for spread of the substance
D. All of the above
CT-24) Who is the person in charge of tracking the patient's final destination?
A. Staging officer
B. Treatment officer
C. Transportation supervisor
D. Incident Commander
C. Transportation supervisor
CT-25) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital
signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory.
A. Priority 1, red tag
B. Priority 3, green tag
C. Priority 2, yellow tag
D. Priority 4, black tag
B. Priority 3, green tag
CT-26) You are just leaving the scene of a
multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication?
A. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
B. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.
C. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries.
D. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries.
A. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
CT-27) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #2 is an
8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 22, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.
A. Priority 4, black tag
B. Priority 1, red tag
C. Priority 2, yellow tag
D. Priority 3, green tag
D. Priority 3, green tag
CT-28) Which of the following is a feature
of a good disaster plan?
A. It is specific to the geographical location.
B. It has been practiced in mock disasters.
C. It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area.
D. All of the above
CT-29) You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of
the following would be the best method of incident command?
A. Single incident command by EMS
B. Single incident command by law enforcement
C. Unified command by police, fire, and EMS
D. Single incident command by fire service
C. Unified command by police, fire, and EMS
CT-30) What source
will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?
A. Shipping manifest
B. Placard
C. Bill of lading
D. Safety Data Sheets
CT-31) You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority?
A. Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open
skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest
B. 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms
C. 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain
D. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side
D. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side
CT-32) Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident?
A. It is located in the warm zone.
B. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.
C. It is protected from weather
elements.
D. It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation.
A. It is located in the warm zone.
CT-33) An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a:
A. treatment zone.
B. safe zone.
C. hot zone.
D.
danger zone.
CT-34) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?
A. Rehabilitating the HAZMAT team
B. Decontaminating injured victims
C. Treating injured patients
D. Staying in the cold zone
B. Decontaminating injured victims
CT-35) You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this?
A.
EMS officer
B. Incident Commander
C. Dispatch
D. Rescue officer
CT-36) What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?
A. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources
B. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response
C. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel
resources
D. Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene
C. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
CT-37) Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize
the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a HAZMAT response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A. First Responder Awareness
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. First Responder Operations
A. First Responder Awareness
CT-38) Where is the decontamination corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated?
A. Cold zone
B. Warm zone
C. Hot zone
D. Cool zone
CT-39) Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident?
A. Medical protocols
B. Medical
dictionary
C. Emergency Response Guidebook
D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline
C. Emergency Response Guidebook
CT-40) Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from
becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A. First Responder Operations
CT-41)
Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?
A. Emulsification
B. Disposal
C. Disinfection
D. Deodorization
CT-42) Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency?
A. Structural firefighting gear
B. HEPA mask
C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
D. Chemical
permeable gloves
C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
CT-43) At 0330, you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying?
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B. CHEM-TEL
C.
Regional poison control center
D. CHEMTREC
CT-44) Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called:
A. panels.
B. placards.
C. warnings.
D. indicators.
CT-45) Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material?
A. Checking the safety data sheet
B.
Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container
C. Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident
D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
CT-46) In which of the
following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
A. Hot zone
B. Cold zone
C. Warm zone
D. Ground zero
CT-47) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #4 is a
13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.
A. Priority 3, green tag
B. Priority 1, red tag
C. Priority 4, black tag
D. Priority 2, yellow tag
CT-48) When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide?
A. An estimate of the
amount of the substance involved
B. Your level of EMS certification
C. Your background in chemistry
D. Both A and B
A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved
CT-49) Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond
to?
A. Structure fires
B. Automobile collisions
C. Outbreaks of influenza
D. Hazardous materials incidents
CT-50) The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official?
A. Transportation supervisor
B. Triage supervisor
C. Incident Command of the scene
D. Commander of the entire incident
C. Incident Command of the scene
CT-51) You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to
oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as:
A. redundant command.
B. dual command.
C. unified command.
D. incident command.
CT-52) With START triage, when you arrive on the scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as:
A. yellow
tagged.
B. red tagged.
C. Priority 3 walking wounded.
D. Priority 4 walking wounded.
C. Priority 3 walking wounded.
CT-53) To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level?
A. Technician
B. Awareness
C. Specialist
D. Operations
CT-54) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.
A. Priority 1, red tag
B. Priority 4, black
tag
C. Priority 3, green tag
D. Priority 2, yellow tag
CT-55) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a ________ patient.
A. Priority 2
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 0
CT-56) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality
incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient.
A. Priority 2
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 0
CT-57) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient.
A. Priority 3
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 0
D. Priority 2
CT-58) Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
CT-59) Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material?
A. Wearing heavy cloth gloves
B. Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to
soak up contaminated runoff water
C. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards
D. Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination
C. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards
CT-60) Andrea is
an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she acts as a liaison with federal, state, and local authorities. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Technician
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Specialist
D. Hazardous Materials Specialist