H-1) Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous material? C. Scalds if heated too high Water scalds if heated too high and is not a hazardous material. The other effects are self-produced by the materials themselves, and are the effects of certain hazardous materials. H-2) A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if it: C. forms part of a daily diet. No material that could be part of a daily diet could be a hazardous material. The other effects are hazards produced by various hazardous materials. H-3) Which of the following best describes the roles
of Hazardous Materials Specialists? A. They act as a
liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities. Hazardous Materials Specialists have advanced knowledge and skills, and act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities with regard to site activities. H-4) Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect people, property, and the
environment? C. First Responder Operations The First Responder Operations level of training is required for those who respond initially to hazardous materials incidents to protect life, property, and the environment. H-5) To identify the exact substance an overturned chemical truck was carrying, the EMT would consult: B. the bill of lading. Check invoices, bills of lading (trucks), and shipping
manifests (trains). If you can safely obtain them, these documents will identify the exact substance being transported, the exact quantity, its place of origin, and its destination. H-6) You respond to a call for multiple medical patients who all passed out at the same time while working at a chemical processing plant. You strongly suspect a HAZMAT incident. Keeping your distance from the scene of the
incident, you must: B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. You must make an attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. Until that is done, it will be difficult to determine the risk to the public, rescuers, patients, and the environment. You must try to find out what the substance is and what its properties and dangers might be; whether or not there is imminent danger of the contamination spreading; what you can hear, see, and smell; how many patients are involved; and if there is any danger of
secondary contamination from the patients. H-7) Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA placard? C. Reactivity Blue = Health H-8) Division 1.6 of the hazard classification system identifies: C. extremely insensitive detonating articles. Class 1 of the hazard classification system is explosives. Division 1.6 is extremely
insensitive detonating articles. H-9) Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping manifests? B. The origin of the shipment The exact name of the substance, the quantity of the substance, its origin, and its destination are required information on shipping manifests. H-10) Which of the following is a reference that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency? A. Emergency Response Guidebook The North American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a resource that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency. H-11) Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm zone? A. Decontamination Patients must be completely decontaminated before entering
the cold zone, in order to avoid secondary contamination of responders, equipment, ambulances, and other personnel. H-12) Which of the following must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident? D. Shedding all contaminated clothing Before entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident, the rescue team that was in the hot zone must be decontaminated and must shed all their contaminated clothing. H-13) What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or
hot zones of a hazardous incident? C. Isolate it and label it for
disposal H-14) Where is the safest zone to provide medical care of a patient who has been covered with a hazardous material? A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated The hot zone is the location of the danger, the warm zone is where the decontamination corridor is located, and the cold zone is a safe location for treatment of patients who have been decontaminated. H-15) A large-scale MCI creates a
situation that: D. tests the capabilities of even the best-trained EMTs Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the
same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude. H-16) Which of the following statements regarding a small-scale MCI that expands into
a large-scale MCI is most accurate? A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe. Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude H-17) Which of the following is needed for effective response to an MCI? B. Requesting and managing necessary resources Requesting and properly managing adequate resources are required for efficient response to an MCI. H-18) Ideally, on the scene of an MCI, those who directly communicate with command should be: B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command. The flow of communications at the scene of a large-scale MCI should correspond to the organizational chart being used. Accordingly, the only unit talking to the communications center and requesting resources is command. The only ones who talk to command are those directly subordinate to command. All others talk to only the officer or supervisor to whom they are assigned. These mandates should be addressed in your standard operating guidelines. H-19) EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should be: H-20) Which of the following words best describes the attitude EMTs should have when responding to an MCI? C. Vigilant It is important for the responder to be vigilant for unhealthy behaviors brought about by stressful events. H-21) Surge capacity refers to: A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients Surge capacity is a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. It is dependent on a well-functioning incident management system and the variables of space, supplies, staff, and any special considerations (contaminated or contagious patients, for example). H-22) The person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident is the: B. transportation supervisor. The transportation supervisor is the person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident. H-23) You are assigned to the triage unit at an MCI, and you are going from patient to patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the process? D. Opening the airway You must rapidly assess each remaining patient, stopping only to secure an airway or stop profuse bleeding. It is important that you not develop "tunnel vision" - spending time rendering additional care to any one patient and thus failing to identify and correct life-threatening conditions of the remaining patients. H-24) The first triage cut involves: D. identifying the walking wounded. The first triage cut can be done rapidly by using a bullhorn, PA system, or loud voice to direct all patients capable of walking (Priority 3) to move to a particular area. This has a two-fold purpose. It quickly identifies the individuals who have an airway and circulation, and it physically separates them from patients who will generally need more care. H-25) Which of the following best describes secondary triage? D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage area, to determine whether a patient's priority should be upgraded or downgraded Secondary triage refers to the process of reassessing findings from primary triage to reclassify the patient, if necessary. H-26) Which of the following statements best explains the difference between primary triage and secondary triage? B. Patients' conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage. Secondary triage is performed after primary triage to detect any changes in the patients' priority for transport. H-27) At an MCI, which of the following is performed when the EMT first encounters an injured patient? H-28) The highest priority for treatment and transport at an MCI are patients who are triaged to which of the following categories? C. Red Green = Lowest H-29) Which of the following findings would result in a patient at an MCI's being categorized as yellow in START triage? C. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert To be placed in the yellow category in START triage, a patient must not have been able to move with the walking wounded and must be breathing fewer than 30 times per minute, have a radial pulse or capillary refill less than 2 seconds, and be alert. H-30) Which of the following would place a patient as a Priority 1, or red, during START triage? D. Respirations >30 per minute, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status Respirations over 30, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status are criteria for category 1, or red. H-31) You are
START-triaging a child who is not breathing. When you have opened the airway, the child does not begin breathing. Which of the following is the correct next step? A. Tag the child as "black" and move on. In START triage, a patient is categorized as "black" if, after opening the airway, the patient does not begin breathing. Smaller incidents - a zero could be a 1 H-32) Which of the following best describes the patients who are assigned to the green category in triage? C. Minor The green category is used for patients with minor injuries, often referred to as "the walking wounded." H-33) You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you await your assigned patient? D. Staging Ambulances wait in the staging area until requested for patient transport. H-34) Who is responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at an MCI? A. The staging supervisor The staging supervisor is responsible for overseeing ambulance operations at an MCI. PT-1) What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a multiple-casualty incident? PT-2) An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI is: D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can. PT-3) Field decontamination takes place in the: PT-4)
What are the three criteria for assessing patients during triage? D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status PT-5) Which of the following is a basic principle of disaster-preparedness planning? D. Prepare a plan that is specific, practical, and well-understood. PT-6)At what point should transport of the injured begin at an MCI? D. After triage has identified "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units
PT-7) Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and meals, and for the rotation of crews? PT-8) During triage of a 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is awake, breathing 28 times per minute, has a palpable pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not
ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this patient? PT-9) What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an MCI? A. Treat the EMT as a patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest PT-10) In which type of incident would unified command be most appropriate? D. Involvement of different branches of public safety PT-11) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of triage? D. To prioritize patients in an MCI PT-12) When you call an emergency response service
or agency regarding hazardous materials, which information is LEAST relevant? D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun PT-13) Which of the following is the best choice for triage supervisor? C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider
PT-14) A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be assigned? PT-15) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a multiple-casualty incident? C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail PT-16) Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in MCIs? A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding PT-17) Which of the following is
considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials incidents? PT-18) Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually present? PT-19) At a hazardous materials incident,
which of the following areas is used for triaging patients, performing necessary treatment, and stabilizing patients before transport? PT-20) You arrive at the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident and see several patients lying on the ground next to an overturned truck with what looks like chemicals leaking out of it in all directions. You
should: A. take a command position. PT-21) All patients leaving the site of a hazardous materials incident should be
considered: PT-22) A hot zone is: B. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident. PT-23) Which statement best describes the use of the "black" category in START triage? C. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing PT-24) Which of the following best
describes the required contents of shipping manifests associated with hazardous materials? A. Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination PT-25) What is the purpose of secondary triage? A. To reevaluate each patient's priority for treatment and transport PT-26) Which of the following is most likely to indicate the presence of released hazardous material? C. Sudden irritation of the eyes PT-27) What is the highest level of training for HAZMAT incidents under OSHA regulations? A. On-Scene Incident Commander PT-28) Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704 placard? PT-29) A responder who has been assigned to decontamination has which of
the following responsibilities? D. Performing triage in PPE PT-30) Organization for a smaller MCI would involve: A. command and a triage supervisor. PT-31)
During START triage, you encounter an adult patient who is not breathing. Which of the following actions is the next step you should take? D. Open the airway and reassess breathing. PT-32) A hazardous material incident would be LEAST likely to take place: PT-33) The area in which secondary triage takes place at a multiple-casualty incident is the: PT-34) In
addition to toxicity and flammability, which of the following is among the harmful properties of hazardous materials? PT-35) Which of the following HAZMAT training levels requires at least 24 hours of training? D. Hazardous Materials Technician PT-36) You are directed to establish a rehab area at a HAZMAT incident. You know that this area must be: D. easily accessible to EMS units. CT-1) You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli,
and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport. CT-2) When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? D. Transportation supervisor CT-3) When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? B. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer CT-4) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some
simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? A. Respiration, pulse, and mental status CT-5) Which of the
following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident? D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill CT-6) As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee. CT-7) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: C. Priority 4, black tag CT-8) Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions
that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also be: C. well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed. Written CT-9) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? CT-10) You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving
fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should: B. recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response. CT-11) You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? C. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building. CT-12) EMS operations generally include which six areas? A. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation CT-13)
Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people. (Page 1194 "manageable span of control to be between 3-7 people) CT-14) Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? D. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill CT-15) You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious
distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point? D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response. CT-16) When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over
the others, this is called: CT-17) ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control is: CT-18) In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? CT-19) What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? CT-20) When grossly decontaminating a
patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? D. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower CT-21) Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation area in a hazardous materials incident? CT-22) ________ is the
response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. CT-23) Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials
emergency? CT-24) Who is the person in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? C. Transportation supervisor CT-25) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: B. Priority 3, green tag CT-26) You are just leaving the scene of a
multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? A. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility. CT-27) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: D. Priority 3, green tag CT-28) Which of the following is a feature
of a good disaster plan? CT-29) You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of
the following would be the best method of incident command? C. Unified command by police, fire, and EMS CT-30) What source
will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? CT-31) You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? D. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side CT-32) Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident? A. It is located in the warm zone. CT-33) An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a: CT-34) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? B. Decontaminating injured victims CT-35) You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? CT-36) What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? C. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources CT-37) Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize
the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a HAZMAT response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness CT-38) Where is the decontamination corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? CT-39) Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? C. Emergency Response Guidebook CT-40) Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from
becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Operations CT-41)
Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? CT-42) Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls CT-43) At 0330, you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? CT-44) Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called: CT-45) Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis CT-46) In which of the
following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? CT-47) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: CT-48) When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved CT-49) Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond
to? CT-50) The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? C. Incident Command of the scene CT-51) You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to
oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as: CT-52) With START triage, when you arrive on the scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: C. Priority 3 walking wounded. CT-53) To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level? CT-54) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: CT-55) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a ________ patient. CT-56) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality
incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. CT-57) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. CT-58) Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. D. Hazardous Materials Technician CT-59) Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? C. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards CT-60) Andrea is
an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she acts as a liaison with federal, state, and local authorities. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
D. Hazardous Materials Specialist What constitutes a multiple casualty incident MCI?A mass casualty incident (MCI) is defined as “an event that overwhelms the local healthcare system, where the number of casualties vastly exceeds the local resources and capabilities in a short period of time.” Any MCI can rapidly exhaust available resources for not only the MCI but the normal day-to-day tasks of the ...
Which of the following most accurately describes a multiple casualty incident quizlet?Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systems available resources. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: assess for a distal pulse.
What constitutes a multiple casualty incident MCI quizlet?What is a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? An incident that involves many patients and places great demand on emergency resources and personnel.
What are the three criteria for assessing patients during triage?The START triage system classifies patients as red/immediate if the patient fits one of the following three criteria: 1) A respiratory rate that's > 30 per minute; 2) Radial pulse is absent, or capillary refill is > 2 seconds; and 3) Patient is unable to follow simple commands.
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When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following
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